✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1210 specifies Epinephrine begins <strong>after defibrillation x2</strong> for VF/pulseless VT — 1mg (10mL of 0.1mg/mL) IV/IO, repeated every 5 minutes for 2 additional doses, maximum total 3mg.
Special Consideration ❿ explains why: epinephrine can worsen outcomes if given early in a shockable rhythm, where defibrillation is the priority initial treatment. It is more useful once compressions/defibrillation have already been prioritized.
Option A is wrong because it jumps the priority order (compressions/defibrillation come first). Option C over-doses beyond the every-5-minute schedule. Option D is wrong — epinephrine IS used in refractory shockable arrest, just delayed.
Protocol: TP 1210 Cardiac Arrest, steps 7-9
✓ Correct Answer: B
Special Consideration ❾ instructs providers to change the pad position (vector change, e.g. anterior-lateral to anterior-posterior) after three shocks without conversion, which increases the chance of converting to a perfusing rhythm.
Step 11 gives Amiodarone 300mg (6mL) IV/IO after defibrillation x3, with a repeat dose of 150mg after 2 more defibrillations, to a maximum total dose of 450mg — so the initial dose is 300mg, not the full 450mg at once.
Lidocaine is not the first-line antiarrhythmic in the LA County arrest algorithm for refractory VF/VT (Amiodarone is); Magnesium is not indicated here.
Protocol: TP 1210 Cardiac Arrest, step 11 & Special Consideration ❾
✓ Correct Answer: C
Special Consideration ⓯ states ETCO2 should be used to guide ventilation rate with a target of 35-45 mmHg after ROSC.
Hyperventilation reduces cerebral blood flow and is explicitly discouraged — a transient elevation is expected right after ROSC and should not be treated with hyperventilation.
Continuing to ventilate at an appropriate, unhurried rate (approximately 10/min) while monitoring EtCO2 is the correct approach; stopping ventilations entirely is never appropriate.
Protocol: TP 1210 Cardiac Arrest, step 21 & Special Consideration ⓯
✓ Correct Answer: B
Special Consideration ⓮ states all cardiac arrest patients, with or without ROSC, being transported should go to an SRC if ground transport is 30 minutes or less, since targeted temperature management and early coronary angiography improve outcomes.
At 25 minutes, this patient falls within that window, so transport should proceed directly to the SRC.
Stroke centers are irrelevant here; this is a cardiac, not neurologic, presentation.
Protocol: TP 1210 Cardiac Arrest, Special Consideration ⓮
✓ Correct Answer: B
Inferior STEMI with hypotension raises concern for right ventricular infarction (RVI); NTG is contraindicated in hypotensive patients (SBP <100) and can cause profound, sometimes fatal, hypotension by dropping RV preload.
TP 1211 directs holding NTG when SBP is below 100 and treating poor perfusion per TP 1207 with fluids; assessing for RVI with a right-sided ECG helps confirm the diagnosis before further cardiac medications.
Fentanyl does not address the underlying hemodynamic problem and NTG remains contraindicated regardless.
Protocol: TP 1211 Cardiac Chest Pain, Special Consideration ❹ / TP 1207
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1211 step 6 explicitly holds NTG if the patient has taken a sexually enhancing medication within 48 hours. Combining NTG with PDE-5 inhibitors like sildenafil can cause severe, refractory hypotension.
36 hours is within that 48-hour window, so NTG must be held even though the patient is otherwise a candidate for it.
This is not a permanent contraindication — once 48 hours have passed, NTG can be considered.
Protocol: TP 1211 Cardiac Chest Pain, step 6
✓ Correct Answer: C
TP 1212 step 6 states not to delay TCP for vascular access if indicated. Step 8 specifies that if IV cannot be rapidly established, or if HR is ≤40 in 2nd degree type II or 3rd degree block, proceed immediately to TCP.
Special Consideration ❸ notes atropine is unlikely to help in type II or third-degree block, so TCP should not be delayed waiting on atropine to work.
Delaying for repeated IV attempts or watching-and-waiting risks further hemodynamic deterioration in an unstable, high-grade block.
Protocol: TP 1212 Cardiac Dysrhythmia-Bradycardia, steps 6-9
✓ Correct Answer: A
TP 1212 step 7 lists Calcium Chloride 1gm slow IV/IO push (may repeat x1) and continuous nebulized Albuterol 5mg as standing orders for suspected hyperkalemia causing bradycardia.
Sodium Bicarbonate 50mEq requires the paramedic to CONTACT BASE to obtain the order, per the same step — it is not a standing order in this protocol.
Renal failure/missed dialysis is a classic hyperkalemia risk factor per Special Consideration ❶, and calcium is specifically indicated (not contraindicated) to stabilize the cardiac membrane.
Protocol: TP 1212 Cardiac Dysrhythmia-Bradycardia, step 7
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1213 step 10 specifies Adenosine 12mg (4mL) rapid IV push immediately followed by a rapid NS flush, which 'may repeat x1 if no conversion' — note that in this LA County protocol the dose is 12mg for both the first and repeat doses (unlike some other systems' 6mg/12mg stepped dosing).
Cardioversion is reserved for patients with poor perfusion/ALOC, or after adenosine fails/is contraindicated and Base is contacted — it isn't the immediate next step for an adequately perfusing patient after just one adenosine dose.
Amiodarone is not part of the SVT algorithm in this protocol.
Protocol: TP 1213 Cardiac Dysrhythmia-Tachycardia, step 10
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1213 step 15 allows Adenosine 12mg rapid IVP with immediate flush for regular/monomorphic wide-complex tachycardia with adequate perfusion, and it may be repeated if the WCT persists.
Special Consideration ❼ explains that a regular monomorphic WCT may represent SVT with aberrancy/bundle branch block, and AHA guidelines support adenosine's use here to potentially convert to sinus rhythm.
Adenosine is contraindicated specifically for irregular wide-complex tachycardia (possible A-fib with WPW), not regular monomorphic WCT — so option A is too broad. Cardioversion/amiodarone are not the first steps for a perfusing patient.
Protocol: TP 1213 Cardiac Dysrhythmia-Tachycardia, step 15 & Special Consideration ❼
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1213 step 19 directs synchronized cardioversion for irregular WCT with poor perfusion, with concurrent Base contact, and consideration of Midazolam sedation prior to cardioversion if feasible.
Adenosine should NOT be used for irregular wide-complex tachycardia, since this may represent atrial fibrillation with WPW, which can degenerate to a fatal dysrhythmia with adenosine (Special Consideration ❹).
Amiodarone is not part of this algorithm, and untreated poor perfusion in an unstable dysrhythmia is never appropriate.
Protocol: TP 1213 Cardiac Dysrhythmia-Tachycardia, step 19 & Special Consideration ❹
✓ Correct Answer: C
TP 1214 step 8 uses a tiered NTG dosing scheme based on SBP: 0.4mg SL for SBP ≥100, 0.8mg SL for SBP ≥150, and 1.2mg SL for SBP ≥200 mmHg.
This patient's SBP of 210 meets the ≥200 threshold, so the highest dose (1.2mg) is indicated, reassessing BP before each subsequent dose (may repeat q3-5min x2).
High SBP is not a contraindication to NTG in pulmonary edema — in fact, it drives more aggressive dosing to reduce afterload.
Protocol: TP 1214 Pulmonary Edema/CHF, step 8
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1214 step 9 allows Albuterol 5mg via nebulizer for wheezing that persists despite CPAP, and it may be given simultaneously with nitroglycerin based on clinical assessment.
If the patient reports a history of COPD or asthma, treatment is done in conjunction with TP 1237, Respiratory Distress — but this doesn't preclude Albuterol use in CHF-associated wheeze.
Epinephrine IM is not indicated for cardiogenic wheezing in this scenario.
Protocol: TP 1214 Pulmonary Edema/CHF, step 9
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1203 step 7 specifies that if unable to obtain venous access, Glucagon 1mg (1mL) IM may be given, and may repeat once in 20 minutes if needed.
Oral glucose is only appropriate for a patient who is awake and alert enough to protect their airway — this patient is unresponsive, so oral glucose is unsafe (aspiration risk).
Delaying treatment for hypoglycemia risks ongoing neurologic injury; IM Glucagon is the standing-order alternative when IV/IO access fails.
Protocol: TP 1203 Diabetic Emergencies, step 7
✓ Correct Answer: B
Special Consideration ❸ in TP 1203 explains that Glucagon works by releasing stored glycogen from the liver — it is only effective if there are sufficient glycogen stores.
Patients with severe malnutrition, cirrhosis, or adrenal insufficiency often have depleted glycogen stores and may not respond adequately to Glucagon.
In this scenario, continued attempts at IV/IO access for Dextrose, along with Base contact, would be the next appropriate steps rather than assuming dosing error.
Protocol: TP 1203 Diabetic Emergencies, Special Consideration ❸
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1204 Special Consideration ❶ states that an EtCO2 reading ≤25 mmHg strongly supports the provider impression of sepsis in patients where sepsis is suspected — low EtCO2 reflects the compensatory tachypnea and metabolic acidosis of sepsis.
This is a documentation/impression aid, not by itself an indication for intubation.
Low EtCO2 in this clinical context should raise suspicion for sepsis rather than be dismissed as simple anxiety.
Protocol: TP 1204 Fever/Sepsis, Special Consideration ❶
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1204 step 8 and Special Consideration ❸ direct documenting Provider Impression as 'Fever' (not Sepsis) when fever is present without tachycardia, tachypnea, or other signs of infection/poor perfusion.
Management for isolated fever is passive cooling and thermal blankets if shivering occurs — not an aggressive fluid bolus, which is reserved for suspected sepsis with tachycardia, tactile fever, or poor perfusion (step 6).
Sepsis is a distinct clinical impression requiring specific criteria; fever alone does not meet that threshold.
Protocol: TP 1204 Fever/Sepsis, step 8 & Special Consideration ❸
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1207 step 10 draws this distinction explicitly: isolated hypotension without poor perfusion that improves with or without an initial 250mL NS bolus is documented as HOTN.
Hypotension WITH poor perfusion, or hypotension that doesn't respond to an initial 250mL bolus and requires additional fluid beyond 1L or Push-dose Epinephrine, is documented as SHOK.
This distinction matters for documentation accuracy and downstream hospital communication about severity.
Protocol: TP 1207 Shock/Hypotension, step 10
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1207 step 11 specifies Push-dose Epinephrine preparation: 9mL Normal Saline mixed with 1mL Epinephrine (0.1mg/mL) IV formulation in a 10mL syringe, yielding a 0.01mg/mL concentration, given 1mL IV/IO every 1-5 minutes titrated to maintain SBP >90mmHg.
CONTACT BASE is required concurrent with the initial dose of Push-dose Epinephrine.
Dopamine and Norepinephrine infusions are not part of the LA County field formulary for this indication; vasopressor support here is via push-dose epi only.
Protocol: TP 1207 Shock/Hypotension, step 11
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1206 step 9 specifies that for an insulin pump, you should check blood glucose PRN and treat in conjunction with TP 1203, Diabetic Emergencies — the underlying glucose abnormality is what should be addressed clinically.
'Medical Device Malfunction' as a Provider Impression is reserved for when the presentation truly suggests the device itself is malfunctioning; otherwise, treat the presenting problem per the applicable protocol.
Most patients with an implanted/worn medical device have complaints unrelated to the device and should be assessed and treated per standard protocols based on signs and symptoms (Special Consideration ❶).
Protocol: TP 1206 Medical Device Malfunction, step 9
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1206 step 9 specifically states that for a Ventricular Assist Device, providers should CONTACT BASE and refer to MCG 1325 — VADs alter normal hemodynamic assessment (e.g., may not have a palpable pulse or standard BP) and require specialized guidance.
This differs from other device categories (e.g., VP shunt or pacemaker), where symptoms are simply treated per presenting complaint — VAD patients specifically require Base involvement given the complexity and risk.
Alarms should never be ignored; they may indicate a life-threatening device malfunction.
Protocol: TP 1206 Medical Device Malfunction, step 9
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1205 step 9 specifies documenting 'Upper GI Bleeding' when the patient is vomiting blood or coffee-ground material, and/or has tarry/black stools (melena), both of which reflect blood that has been partially digested in the upper GI tract.
'Lower GI Bleeding' is reserved for bleeding per rectum (typically bright red), which is a distinct impression.
While abdominal pain and nausea/vomiting are relevant symptoms, the specific finding of coffee-ground emesis has its own dedicated Provider Impression that should be used when present.
Protocol: TP 1205 GI/GU Emergencies, step 9
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1202 step 11 directs assessing a neurologic exam for complaints of weakness; if focal findings are present or stroke is suspected, treat per TP 1232, Stroke/CVA/TIA.
If no focal weakness is present and the complaint is generalized, document Provider Impression as 'Weakness – General' rather than defaulting to a stroke workup.
This distinction matters for appropriate triage and hospital routing — not every weakness complaint requires stroke-center transport.
Protocol: TP 1202 General Medical, step 11
✓ Correct Answer: A
TP 1209 step 10 specifies Midazolam 5mg (1mL) IM/IN/IV for uncooperative patients posing a safety risk, with CONTACT BASE required concurrently with administration — this is a standing order given simultaneously with, not delayed by, base contact.
With Base orders, dosing may repeat every 5 minutes PRN to a maximum total dose of 20mg — 20mg is not a single initial dose.
Olanzapine (step 9) is reserved for cooperative patients; it is a different medication for a different clinical scenario (agitation management in a cooperative patient).
Protocol: TP 1209 Behavioral/Psychiatric Crisis, step 10
✓ Correct Answer: A
TP 1209 Special Consideration ❽ states that larger patients (≥100kg) and/or those posing greater risk of harm due to agitation/violence may require the higher dose of Midazolam (10mg IM/IN single dose) for adequate sedation.
Conversely, smaller, frail, elderly, or already-fatigued patients should preferentially receive the lower 5mg dose (with repeat PRN) to reduce oversedation and apnea risk.
Step 11 allows either 5mg with a repeat in 5 minutes, OR a single 10mg dose, based on this clinical judgment — maximum 10mg prior to Base contact either way.
Protocol: TP 1209 Behavioral/Psychiatric Crisis, step 11 & Special Consideration ❽
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1209 step 13 directs CONTACT BASE for a QRS >0.12 sec or heart rate <50 to discuss administering Sodium Bicarbonate 50mEq IV.
Special Consideration ❿ explains that several agitation-causing drugs (notably cocaine, which produces TCA-like sodium channel blockade) can cause widened QRS progressing to malignant arrhythmia, and large-dose sodium bicarbonate may be needed to prevent sudden cardiac death.
This is treated in conjunction with TP 1241, Overdose/Poisoning/Ingestion — it is not a benign, expected finding, and Midazolam does not treat it.
Protocol: TP 1209 Behavioral/Psychiatric Crisis, step 13 & Special Consideration ❿
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1209 step 20 allows patients who respond to verbal de-escalation or receive only Olanzapine, and who are now cooperative and meet the Ref. 526/526.1 medical clearance screening criteria, to be transported by BLS or law enforcement to the MAR or a Psychiatric Urgent Care Center.
This reflects the goal of routing low-acuity, medically-cleared psychiatric patients to an appropriate alternate destination rather than requiring an ALS unit and ED bed.
This option is specific to patients who only received Olanzapine or de-escalation — patients requiring Midazolam sedation have a different, more monitored transport pathway.
Protocol: TP 1209 Behavioral/Psychiatric Crisis, step 20
✓ Correct Answer: A
TP 1229 Special Consideration ❶ lists the AEIOUTIPS mnemonic: A-Alcohol/abuse/atypical migraine, E-Epilepsy/electrolytes, I-Insulin (hypoglycemia), O-Oxygen/overdose, U-Uremia, T-Trauma/tumor, I-Infection, P-Psych/poisoning, S-Seizure/Subarachnoid hemorrhage/Sepsis/Stroke.
T correctly corresponds to Trauma and tumor. U stands for Uremia (kidney failure), not unresponsiveness — that's a symptom, not a cause category. P stands for Psych and poisoning, not pulmonary embolism. S covers Seizure, Subarachnoid hemorrhage, Sepsis, and Stroke — not syncope alone.
Protocol: TP 1229 ALOC, Special Consideration ❶
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1230 Special Consideration ❷ specifically warns that vertigo may be a symptom of a cerebellar stroke, and if a patient's coordination or gait is abnormal with a complaint of vertigo, providers should strongly consider stroke.
Stroke scales like mLAPSS do not catch every stroke presentation — vertigo/ataxia is a known blind spot, which is why this special consideration exists to prompt heightened suspicion despite a possibly negative mLAPSS.
This is treated per TP 1232, Stroke/CVA/TIA when stroke is suspected, rather than dismissed as routine vertigo.
Protocol: TP 1230 Dizziness/Vertigo, Special Consideration ❷
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1231 requires Base Hospital Contact for pregnant patients or status epilepticus. Step 5 specifically states for suspected eclampsia, CONTACT BASE and do not delay transport.
Active seizure in a pregnant patient (possible eclampsia) is still treated with the standard Midazolam regimen (10mg IM/IN, or 5mg IV/IO with repeat x1 in 2 min prn, max 10mg prior to Base contact) — pregnancy does not contraindicate seizure treatment.
Delaying transport for a pregnant seizure patient is explicitly discouraged given the risk of eclampsia progression.
Protocol: TP 1231 Seizure, step 5 & Base Hospital Contact line
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1231 step 7 gives two dosing options for active seizure: Midazolam 10mg IM/IN, OR (if existing vascular access) Midazolam 5mg IV/IO, repeat x1 in 2 minutes PRN — maximum total dose 10mg via any route prior to Base contact.
With Base contact and orders, dosing may continue up to a maximum total of 20mg.
The IV dose (5mg) is intentionally lower than the IM/IN dose (10mg) because IV onset is faster and more predictable.
Protocol: TP 1231 Seizure, step 7
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1232 step 7 specifies mLAPSS is positive only if ALL listed criteria are met together: no seizure/epilepsy history, age ≥40, not baseline wheelchair-bound/bedridden, glucose between 60-400 mg/dL, AND obvious asymmetric unilateral weakness (facial, arm, or grip).
This patient meets all five criteria (age 68, no seizure history, ambulatory at baseline, glucose 110, unilateral facial/arm findings), so the mLAPSS would be positive.
It's a conjunctive (AND) test, not just a single criterion — missing even one excludes a positive result, which is why option A and C are incorrect.
Protocol: TP 1232 Stroke/CVA/TIA, step 7
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1232 step 10 gives destination criteria: mLAPSS positive + LAMS 4-5 + LKWT ≤24 hours → transport to a Comprehensive Stroke Center (CSC) if within 30 minutes.
This patient meets all three criteria and the CSC is within the 30-minute window (25 min), so CSC is the correct destination — LAMS 4-5 indicates a higher likelihood of large vessel occlusion, which benefits from CSC-level intervention capability.
A LAMS of ≤3 (not 4-5) with mLAPSS positive would instead go to the closest Stroke Center rather than the CSC.
Protocol: TP 1232 Stroke/CVA/TIA, step 10
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1232 step 11 and Special Consideration ❺ direct transporting suspected stroke patients with the head of bed elevated 30-45 degrees.
This reduces aspiration risk (relevant given possible dysphagia/impaired swallow with stroke) and reduces elevation in intracranial pressure.
Trendelenburg would worsen ICP and is not indicated; fully flat/supine or prone positioning are not the protocol recommendation for suspected stroke.
Protocol: TP 1232 Stroke/CVA/TIA, step 11 & Special Consideration ❺
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1217 step 12 (Nuchal Cord section) specifies: if the cord is too tight to easily slip over the head, clamp the cord in two places 1 inch apart and cut the cord with scissors.
Step 11 covers the alternative: if the nuchal cord is loose, first attempt slipping it over the head before delivery — cutting is reserved for when the cord is too tight to slip over.
Forcing a tight cord over the head risks cord avulsion and hemorrhage; cutting when appropriately indicated is the safer, protocol-directed action.
Protocol: TP 1217 Pregnancy Complication, Nuchal Cord section, step 12
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1217 step 8 (Breech Delivery section) directs: if the head does not deliver, place a gloved hand inside the mother and form a 'V' with fingers around the baby's face to provide an airway opening.
Cutting the cord before the head delivers would be catastrophic, cutting off the fetal blood/oxygen supply while the head remains undelivered and unable to breathe independently.
Suprapubic pressure with the McRoberts maneuver is the technique for shoulder dystocia, a different complication (step 13), not for a retained breech head.
Protocol: TP 1217 Pregnancy Complication, Breech Delivery section, step 8
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1217 Postpartum Hemorrhage section (steps 18-21) directs fundal massage, establishing 2 large-bore IVs, Normal Saline 1L (repeat x1 for ongoing hemorrhage/poor perfusion), and TXA 1 gram in 50-100mL NS over 10 minutes for patients within 3 hours postpartum with ongoing bleeding AND SBP <90, OR HR>SBP, OR estimated blood loss >500mL.
This patient meets criteria (SBP 84 <90, within 3 hours, HR 118 > SBP 84) — so TXA and fluids should be initiated concurrently per Special Consideration ❼.
Blood products are not part of the field EMS formulary in this protocol; TXA is the indicated antifibrinolytic intervention.
Protocol: TP 1217 Pregnancy Complication, Postpartum Hemorrhage section
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1218 Special Consideration ❶ states that contractions less than 2 minutes apart or lasting more than 60 seconds indicate the patient is close to delivery, and providers should prepare accordingly.
This patient's contractions are every 90 seconds (< 2 min apart) and lasting 70 seconds (> 60 sec), meeting both criteria for impending delivery.
The protocol also notes that women who have had prior vaginal deliveries can progress through labor very rapidly, reinforcing the need to prepare for field delivery rather than assume there's time for extended transport.
Protocol: TP 1218 Pregnancy Labor, Special Consideration ❶
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1218 step 7 explicitly states: 'Opiate and Ketorolac analgesia is contraindicated (MCG 1345).'
This reflects concern for neonatal respiratory depression from opioids crossing the placenta close to delivery, and bleeding/renal risk from NSAIDs like Ketorolac in a peripartum patient.
This is a notable protocol-specific restriction that differs from general pain management guidance in other contexts and is a common point of confusion/testing.
Protocol: TP 1218 Pregnancy Labor, step 7
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1219 step 4 and Special Consideration ❶ establish Epinephrine (1mg/mL) 0.5mg (0.5mL) IM in the lateral thigh (preferred site) as the drug of choice for anaphylaxis presenting with angioedema, respiratory compromise, or poor perfusion.
Diphenhydramine does NOT treat anaphylaxis (Special Consideration ❸) — it may be used afterward for isolated hives/itching once definitive treatment with Epinephrine has been given.
Albuterol may be added if wheezing persists after Epinephrine, but Epinephrine IM is always first for true anaphylaxis with respiratory or angioedema findings — not held until Albuterol fails.
Protocol: TP 1219 Allergy, step 4 & Special Considerations ❶❸
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1219 step 7 addresses anaphylactic shock (persistent poor perfusion after initial 250mL NS): continue Normal Saline 1L rapid infusion AND begin Push-dose Epinephrine (0.01mg/mL, 1mL IV/IO q1-5min titrated to SBP >90), with CONTACT BASE concurrent with the initial Push-dose Epi dose.
This is then treated in conjunction with TP 1207, Shock/Hypotension.
IM Epinephrine may still be repeated per step 4 (q10min x2, max 3 total doses) with Base contact, but the shock-specific next step for persistent poor perfusion after fluids is Push-dose Epi, not simply repeating IM epi in isolation.
Protocol: TP 1219 Allergy, step 7
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1234 step 7 (tracheostomy section) directs that if suctioning and inner cannula cleaning don't relieve obstruction, remove the entire tracheostomy tube and replace it with a new tracheostomy tube OR a 6.0mm endotracheal tube.
If a new tube cannot be placed, the next step is to cover the stoma and attempt BMV first via the mouth; if no chest rise, attempt BMV over the stoma with a small mask.
Special Consideration ❹ notes removal/reinsertion is contraindicated if the tracheostomy is <1 week old (immature stoma, false tract risk) — but for a mature stoma, this stepwise approach applies.
Protocol: TP 1234 Airway Obstruction, tracheostomy section, step 7
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1234 step 7 (stridor section) specifies Epinephrine (1mg/mL solution) 5mg (5mL) via nebulizer for stridor, which may repeat x1 in 10 minutes PRN, while preparing to manage the airway if the patient's condition deteriorates.
This nebulized (racemic-style) epinephrine dose for stridor is distinct from the IM Epinephrine 0.5mg dose used for visible airway/tongue swelling (angioedema) in the same protocol step.
Albuterol is a bronchodilator for lower airway bronchospasm, not the primary treatment for upper airway stridor/swelling.
Protocol: TP 1234 Airway Obstruction, stridor section
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1234 step 3 specifies for a conscious patient unable to speak due to physical obstruction: perform 5 back blows, then 5 abdominal thrusts, alternating between the two.
If the patient becomes unconscious during this process, you lower them to the ground and begin chest compressions, then initiate CPR x2 minutes with direct laryngoscopy to visualize and remove the obstruction with Magill forceps if indicated.
Chest compressions are reserved for the unconscious/pulseless choking patient, not as an initial maneuver while the patient is still conscious.
Protocol: TP 1234 Airway Obstruction, step 3
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1226 step 6 (tooth avulsion) directs handling the tooth by the enamel/crown, not touching the root (which contains the periodontal ligament cells needed for potential reimplantation), and placing it in a container with Normal Saline.
Scrubbing or drying the root damages the delicate periodontal ligament cells and reduces the chance of successful reimplantation at the hospital or by a dentist.
The tooth should be preserved and transported with the patient, not discarded.
Protocol: TP 1226 ENT/Dental Emergencies, step 6
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1228 steps 3-4 direct shielding the eye and positioning the patient at 45 degrees for suspected penetrating globe injury, with no pressure placed on the eye, and NOT removing any impaled foreign bodies — instead securing them in place.
Removing an impaled object or applying pressure risks extruding intraocular contents and causing permanent vision loss.
Vigorous irrigation is reserved for chemical burns (step 7), not for a penetrating injury with an impaled object, which requires careful stabilization instead.
Protocol: TP 1228 Eye Problem, steps 3-4
✓ Correct Answer: B
This presentation (involuntary muscle spasms of the face/neck/eyes, forced jaw opening, facial grimacing, eye deviation) after a dopamine-blocking medication like Haloperidol is a classic acute dystonic reaction, covered by TP 1239.
TP 1239 requires CONTACT BASE to confirm the Provider Impression, then Diphenhydramine 50mg slow IV push, or deep IM if venous access is unavailable.
Special Consideration ❶ lists Haloperidol among the common causative medications (along with Compazine, Reglan, Phenergan, and others) — recognizing the medication list helps confirm the diagnosis.
Protocol: TP 1239 Dystonic Reaction, steps 4-5 & Special Consideration ❶
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1220 step 10 specifies Normal Saline 1L IV/IO rapid infusion for partial/full-thickness burns >10% body surface area OR for poor perfusion — this patient's 12% TBSA burn meets the >10% threshold independent of perfusion status.
Reassess after each 250mL increment for volume overload; CONTACT BASE for persistent poor perfusion to obtain an order for additional Normal Saline.
A full 2L is not specified as a mandatory starting dose; fluid is titrated with reassessment.
Protocol: TP 1220 Burns, step 10
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1220 step 7 specifies considering cooling with water only for thermal burns isolated to less than 5% BSA.
Special Consideration ❷ explicitly warns that cooling large surface area burns (greater than 10% BSA) may result in hypothermia — a significant risk given this patient's 35% TBSA burn.
For larger burns, the priority shifts to covering with a dry dressing/sheet and keeping the patient warm with a blanket, rather than active cooling.
Protocol: TP 1220 Burns, step 7 & Special Consideration ❷
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1221 step 1 and Special Consideration ❶ make scene safety the absolute first priority: ensure the source of electricity is turned off before approaching, since electrical current can be conducted through water and skin, and standard gloves do not protect against high-voltage current.
Approaching a live electrical hazard risks the rescuer becoming a second victim — this must be resolved before any patient contact, including airway assessment or CPR.
Only after the source is confirmed off and the surrounding area is dry should providers approach and begin assessment/treatment.
Protocol: TP 1221 Electrocution, step 1 & Special Consideration ❶
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1221 Special Consideration ❷ states that for young, healthy patients, especially in lightning injuries, providers should consider prolonged cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
Lightning/electrical arrest often causes a primary respiratory arrest with cardiac standstill that can have a favorable prognosis with aggressive, prolonged resuscitation, unlike many other arrest etiologies.
This is a specific exception encouraging extended effort, not termination, especially in young and otherwise healthy patients.
Protocol: TP 1221 Electrocution, Special Consideration ❷
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1222 step 6 and Special Consideration ❷ direct on-scene cooling with ice bath immersion for altered patients (not exceeding 15 minutes of immersion), monitoring for mental status improvement.
The goal is to decrease body temperature by at least 3°C within the first 30 minutes of care, since ALOC with suspected heat emergency is treated as heatstroke — a time-critical emergency with risk of cardiovascular collapse.
Oral fluids are reserved for patients with adequate perfusion and normal mental status (step 10) — not appropriate for an altered patient who cannot safely protect their airway.
Protocol: TP 1222 Hyperthermia, step 6 & Special Consideration ❷
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1223 Special Consideration ❸ (and echoed in TP 1225 Special Consideration ❶ for cold-water drowning) states that patients with hypothermia may have good neurologic outcome despite prolonged resuscitation, and resuscitative efforts should continue until the patient is rewarmed.
Consultation with the Base Physician is required before considering termination of resuscitation in these patients — this differs from standard normothermic termination-of-resuscitation criteria.
'The cold and dead aren't dead until warm and dead' reflects the physiologic protective effect hypothermia can have on organs including the brain during a low-flow state.
Protocol: TP 1223 Hypothermia/Cold Injury, step 9 & Special Consideration ❸
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1223 step 5 and Special Consideration ❷ direct handling frostbite gently, removing jewelry, and covering/protecting the area.
Critically, Special Consideration ❷ warns not to allow an area of frostbite to thaw and then refreeze, as a freeze-thaw-refreeze cycle causes significantly more tissue damage than either freezing or thawing alone.
Vigorous massage and direct ice application would cause additional mechanical tissue trauma to already-injured, fragile frostbitten tissue and are contraindicated.
Protocol: TP 1223 Hypothermia/Cold Injury, step 5 & Special Consideration ❷
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1224 step 6 and Special Consideration ❷ specifically instruct NOT to use vinegar for marine envenomation, given the species of jellyfish found in California waters (vinegar can actually worsen nematocyst discharge for certain species found locally, unlike box jellyfish elsewhere where vinegar is recommended).
Instead, the protocol directs soaking the area in hot water if available, and removing any visible barb.
This is a California-specific protocol nuance that differs from generic marine sting teaching in other regions, making it a notable point for the exam.
Protocol: TP 1224 Stings/Venomous Bites, step 6 & Special Consideration ❷
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1224 Special Consideration ❶ specifies removing a stinger by scraping the skin with the edge of a flat surface (like a credit card), rather than pulling it out with fingernails or tweezers.
Pulling/pinching the stinger with fingernails or tweezers can compress the venom sac still attached to the stinger, injecting additional venom into the patient.
A scraping motion lifts the stinger out without compressing the venom sac further.
Protocol: TP 1224 Stings/Venomous Bites, Special Consideration ❶
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1225 requires Base Hospital Contact for ALOC and decompression emergencies; if decompression emergency is suspected, Base Hospital contacts the Medical Alert Center per Ref. 518.
Step 3 directs high-flow Oxygen 15L/min and CONTACT BASE for suspected decompression illness; step 4 directs maintaining the patient supine.
Special Consideration ❷ explains decompression sickness ('the bends') can be delayed and should be considered in any patient with symptoms within 24 hours of a dive — all such patients need evaluation for possible hyperbaric treatment, so upright positioning for 'comfort' is not appropriate here.
Protocol: TP 1225 Submersion, steps 3-4 & Special Consideration ❷
✓ Correct Answer: B
Both TP 1210 (step 26) and TP 1225 (step 12) require contacting Public Health at 213-989-7140 for all submersion incidents involving pools or spas, after transfer of patient care in the ED or upon termination of resuscitation in the field.
Special Consideration ❺/❳ explains this supports the Department of Public Health in promptly investigating fatal or nonfatal drownings at public pools/spas, to verify safety before the facility can reopen.
This requirement applies regardless of patient outcome (survival or death) — it's about facility investigation, not just fatality reporting.
Protocol: TP 1225 Submersion, step 12
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1236/1238 and Special Consideration ❶ in the Burns protocol all emphasize that pulse oximetry is not accurate in carbon monoxide poisoning — standard pulse oximeters cannot distinguish carboxyhemoglobin from oxyhemoglobin, giving a falsely reassuring normal reading.
Given the classic exposure history (closed-space fire, carbonaceous sputum, facial burns), high-flow Oxygen 15L/min should be administered regardless of the SpO2 reading.
This is a frequently tested LA County-specific clinical pearl given how counterintuitive a 'normal' SpO2 can be in true CO toxicity.
Protocol: TP 1238 Carbon Monoxide Exposure, step 4 & TP 1220 Special Consideration ❶
✓ Correct Answer: C
TP 1240 step 14 specifies for SEVERE nerve agent exposure: begin treatment immediately, concurrent with decontamination, with DuoDote IM x3 given one after another.
This contrasts with MODERATE exposure (DuoDote IM x2, step 15) and MILD exposure (DuoDote IM x1, step 16) — both of which require decontamination to be completed BEFORE treatment/transport, unlike severe exposure where treatment starts immediately.
Special Consideration ❶ defines severity tiers: severe includes respiratory arrest, cyanosis, extreme SLUDGE, seizures, and unconsciousness — matching this scenario.
Protocol: TP 1240 HAZMAT, step 14 & Special Consideration ❶
✓ Correct Answer: A
TP 1240 step 26 (Cyanide Exposure section) specifies Hydroxocobalamin 5 grams in 200mL Normal Saline IV/IO (25mg/mL), infused over 15 minutes, which may repeat x1 in 15 minutes for patients with cardiovascular, neurologic, and/or respiratory compromise due to suspected or known cyanide exposure.
This is the field-available cyanide antidote in the LA County formulary — sodium thiosulfate/nitrite kits are not the LA County field standard here.
Cyanide toxicity should also be considered in industrial fires or closed-space fires with ALOC/seizure, per cross-references in the Burns and Inhalation Injury protocols.
Protocol: TP 1240 HAZMAT, step 26
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1240 step 19 (Organophosphate Exposure section) specifies Atropine 2mg (20mL) IV/IO, which may be repeated every 5 minutes until the patient is asymptomatic — this dose is notably higher than the cardiac bradycardia dose (1mg).
Unlike TP 1212's bradycardia Atropine, which caps at a maximum total of 3mg, the organophosphate exposure indication has no stated maximum — high cumulative doses may be needed to overcome the toxin's cholinergic excess.
For seizures in this setting, treatment is given in conjunction with TP 1231, Seizure.
Protocol: TP 1240 HAZMAT, step 19
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1241 Special Consideration ❶ makes clear the first priority for an apneic overdose patient is beginning positive pressure ventilation; Naloxone is then given (IN or IM preferred initially) with the goal of restoring spontaneous ventilation.
Vascular access should NOT take priority over initial treatment with Naloxone via the IN or IM route — you don't need an IV to give the first dose.
Patients who become awake and alert with normal respirations after naloxone may not need IV access or additional doses at all.
Protocol: TP 1241 Overdose/Poisoning/Ingestion, step 4 & Special Consideration ❶
✓ Correct Answer: A
TP 1241 step 15 requires CONTACT BASE to discuss antidote administration, including Calcium Chloride 1g (10mL) IV push over 60 seconds for suspected calcium channel and/or beta blocker overdose.
Special Consideration ❸ notes CCB overdose classically presents with bradycardia, hypotension, AND hyperglycemia (distinguishing it from beta blocker overdose, which causes hypoglycemia) — matching this scenario.
Sodium bicarbonate is the antidote used for tricyclic antidepressant overdose (wide QRS), not CCB overdose — a common point of confusion.
Protocol: TP 1241 Overdose/Poisoning/Ingestion, step 15 & Special Consideration ❸
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1241 Special Consideration ❹ identifies wide QRS (>0.12mm/sec) with a terminal R wave in aVR as classic ECG findings for tricyclic antidepressant overdose.
Step 15 requires CONTACT BASE to discuss antidote administration — for TCA overdose, this is Sodium Bicarbonate 50mEq (50mL) IV push over 60 seconds, which works by alkalinizing the blood to reduce TCA binding to cardiac sodium channels.
Naloxone and Glucagon are not appropriate here; N-acetylcysteine (for acetaminophen toxicity) is not part of the prehospital formulary and doesn't address the acute cardiotoxicity shown on this ECG.
Protocol: TP 1241 Overdose/Poisoning/Ingestion, step 15 & Special Consideration ❹
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1242 step 14 specifies giving Calcium Chloride 1gm IV/IO, Sodium Bicarbonate 50mEq IV/IO, and Albuterol 5mg via nebulizer x2 (10mg total) approximately 5 minutes PRIOR to extrication for patients at risk for crush syndrome.
Special Consideration ❼ explains these should be given before release of compressive force to counteract the surge of cellular toxins (especially potassium) that enters circulation upon extrication.
Special Consideration ❺ specifically notes Calcium should be given first and the line flushed between medications, since Calcium and Bicarbonate will precipitate if mixed together in the same line.
Protocol: TP 1242 Crush Injury/Syndrome, step 14 & Special Considerations ❺❼
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1242 step 14 and Special Consideration ❽ specify that if unable to establish vascular access while entrapped, a tourniquet should be placed PRIOR to extrication as a last resort — but only when vascular access cannot be established or transport is anticipated to exceed 30 minutes.
The tourniquet must completely occlude both venous and arterial flow to effectively protect the patient from the systemic release of crush syndrome toxins upon release of the compressive force.
Once extricated, vascular access and cardiac monitoring must be established immediately, and providers should be prepared to treat crush syndrome symptoms.
Protocol: TP 1242 Crush Injury/Syndrome, Special Consideration ❽
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1243 step 7 and Special Consideration ❸ direct that for penetrating trauma with a shockable rhythm, providers should defibrillate WHILE prioritizing immediate transport — this differs from the blunt trauma approach, which initiates on-scene resuscitation.
Rapid transport after hemorrhage control is the overall priority for severe trauma (Special Consideration ❶); with the exception of hemorrhage control, needle thoracostomy, and initiating CPR, other procedures should be deferred for immediate loading and performed en route.
This reflects that penetrating trauma arrest often has a surgically correctable cause (hemorrhage) that can only be fixed at a trauma center, unlike many blunt trauma arrests.
Protocol: TP 1243 Traumatic Arrest, step 7 & Special Consideration ❸
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1243 step 7 (blunt trauma subsection) directs that if organized rhythm is not restored after defibrillation x3, or the patient converts to a nonshockable rhythm, providers should refer to Ref. No. 814 for determination of death, and CONTACT BASE if needed for guidance on continued resuscitation or transport.
This differs from penetrating trauma arrest, where transport is prioritized regardless of rhythm outcome; blunt traumatic arrest without a shockable rhythm after adequate defibrillation attempts has a very poor prognosis and specific field termination criteria may apply.
This is never done unilaterally without either meeting Ref. 814 criteria or Base guidance — it isn't an option to simply stop without following one of these pathways.
Protocol: TP 1243 Traumatic Arrest, step 7 (blunt trauma) & Special Consideration ❹
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1244 Special Consideration ❻ specifies that for blunt trauma with poor perfusion, fluids should be administered to target SBP ≥90mmHg — a higher target than the permissive hypotension approach used for penetrating trauma.
Penetrating trauma with poor perfusion and normal mental status targets a lower SBP ≥70mmHg (permissive hypotension) to avoid disrupting clot formation, but this specifically does NOT apply to blunt trauma.
Aggressive over-resuscitation beyond target (e.g., pushing to 120) increases vascular pressure and dilutes clotting factors, potentially worsening internal bleeding — so fluids are titrated to the specific target, not maximized.
Protocol: TP 1244 Traumatic Injury, Special Consideration ❻
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1244 Special Consideration ❻ explicitly states that in patients with possible traumatic brain injury, permissive hypotension is contraindicated, and SBP should be maintained ≥90mmHg.
Special Consideration ⓫ reinforces this: any hypotension increases mortality in TBI patients, so Normal Saline should be initiated to maintain SBP ≥90mmHg at all times (though it can be withheld if BP is already elevated).
This is a critical distinction from penetrating/blunt torso trauma without head injury, where permissive hypotension (lower targets) may apply — TBI physiology (cerebral perfusion pressure) demands a higher floor.
Protocol: TP 1244 Traumatic Injury, Isolated Head Injury section, Special Considerations ❻⓫
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1244 step 16 (and mirrored in TP 1217 for PPH and TP 1242 for crush injury) specifies TXA 1 gram in 50-100mL Normal Saline IV/IO, infused over 10 minutes, for patients within 3 hours of injury with SBP <90, HR>SBP, or uncontrolled hemorrhage.
Special Consideration ❼ notes that in patients meeting TXA indications, fluid resuscitation with Normal Saline and TXA should be administered concurrently, not sequentially.
This is a slow infusion (10 minutes), not an IV push or IM injection.
Protocol: TP 1244 Traumatic Injury, step 16 & Special Consideration ❼
✓ Correct Answer: A
TP 1244 step 29 directs applying a traction splint per manufacturer guidelines for mid-shaft femur fractures.
Special Consideration ⓭ clarifies that an open femur fracture (with protruding bone) is NOT a contraindication to applying the traction splint — if the bone is protruding with gross contamination, wash it with saline before applying the splint.
All other fractures/dislocations are splinted in position of comfort rather than with a traction splint, which is specific to femur shaft fractures.
Protocol: TP 1244 Traumatic Injury, step 29 & Special Consideration ⓭
✓ Correct Answer: B
TP 1244 step 29 and Special Consideration ⓮ direct rinsing off gross debris (without manual debridement) from an amputated part, wrapping it in saline-moistened sterile gauze, sealing it in plastic, and placing it indirectly on ice (i.e., the sealed bag sits on/near ice, not touching it directly).
It should never be submerged in water or placed directly on ice, both of which can cause additional tissue damage (maceration or frostbite injury to the part).
The amputated part should be transported with the patient and given to hospital staff, not left behind at the scene.
Protocol: TP 1244 Traumatic Injury, step 29 & Special Consideration ⓮
✓ Correct Answer: B
Ref. 506, Section I.D lists 'All penetrating injuries to head, neck, torso, and extremities proximal to the elbow or knee' as a Trauma Criterion requiring immediate transport to a designated trauma center, with no requirement for abnormal vital signs.
Trauma Criteria apply as long as transport time does not exceed 30 minutes, which this patient's 22-minute transport time satisfies.
Vital sign abnormality (Criterion A/B) is a separate, independent criterion — penetrating torso trauma qualifies on its own regardless of hemodynamic status.
Protocol: Ref. No. 506 Trauma Triage, Section I.D
✓ Correct Answer: B
Ref. 506, Section I.I lists 'Suspected pelvic fracture' as a Trauma Criterion, but explicitly EXCLUDES 'isolated hip fracture from a ground level fall.'
This carve-out exists because isolated ground-level-fall hip fractures in older adults are extremely common and are usually appropriately managed at a non-trauma-center orthopedic service rather than requiring full trauma team activation.
Age over 65 alone is a Special Consideration for possible occult shock at a higher SBP threshold (Section III.B), not by itself a Trauma Criterion — and it doesn't override the pelvic fracture exclusion here.
Protocol: Ref. No. 506 Trauma Triage, Section I.I
✓ Correct Answer: B
Ref. 506 distinguishes intrusion into an OCCUPIED passenger space (>12 inches = Trauma Criterion, Section I.L) from intrusion into an UNOCCUPIED passenger space (>18 inches = Trauma Guideline, Section II.A).
This patient had intrusion into an unoccupied space, and at 15 inches, does not reach the 18-inch Guideline threshold either — but Guidelines are broader and 'at the discretion of the base hospital,' so it's still reasonable to discuss with Base given the significant mechanism, even without meeting a hard numeric criterion.
The key testable distinction is 12 inches (occupied/Criterion) vs. 18 inches (unoccupied/Guideline) — a common point of confusion.
Protocol: Ref. No. 506 Trauma Triage, Sections I.L & II.A
✓ Correct Answer: B
Ref. 506, Section III.B (Special Considerations) states that a systolic blood pressure less than 110 mmHg may represent shock after age 65 years — this patient's SBP of 105 falls below that age-adjusted threshold.
Special Considerations are not hard Trauma Criteria requiring mandatory transport, but they are factors that should prompt consideration of trauma center transport, especially combined with tachycardia (HR > SBP is also a Special Consideration for age ≥14, Section III.C).
Elderly patients often don't manifest hypotension by traditional thresholds (SBP <90) despite significant blood loss, due to age-related physiologic changes and common use of antihypertensive medications — hence the adjusted 110 mmHg threshold.
Protocol: Ref. No. 506 Trauma Triage, Section III.B
✓ Correct Answer: B
Ref. 506, Section IV.A lists patients with an obstructed airway, or concern for imminent airway obstruction due to inhalation injury, as Extremis patients requiring immediate transport to the MAR (Most Accessible Receiving hospital) — not the more distant trauma center.
The rationale is that an unmanageable airway is immediately life-threatening; the patient will not survive a longer transport to a trauma center without an airway secured, so the closest facility capable of emergent airway management takes priority over trauma center capability.
This mirrors the 'Unmanageable Airway' language used throughout the treatment protocols (e.g., TP 1234, TP 1236, TP 1244) directing immediate transport to the MAR with Base contact en route.
Protocol: Ref. No. 506 Trauma Triage, Section IV.A