ICEMA Paramedic Protocol
Study Guide & Practice Test

Based on the ICEMA Policy & Protocol Manual (Effective 11/01/25, updated 01/01/26) — Inland Counties Emergency Medical Agency

Reference 11010 Medications Reference 11020 Procedures 14-Series Treatment Protocols 100-Question Practice Test

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Section 01

ICEMA System Overview

What is ICEMA?

ICEMA (Inland Counties Emergency Medical Agency) is the Local EMS Agency (LEMSA) that governs EMS in San Bernardino, Inyo, and Mono Counties. It operates under California Title 22 and sets all scope of practice, credentialing, and protocol requirements for the region. The Medical Director's standing orders override NREMT/ACLS defaults whenever they conflict — always defer to ICEMA protocols on the test.

Provider Levels & Scope

LevelAbbreviationKey Scope Additions
Emergency Medical TechnicianEMT / BLSNaloxone (IM/IN), Albuterol MDI (4 puffs), Epi 0.3 auto-injector (anaphylaxis/severe asthma), AED, spinal motion restriction, oral glucose, blood glucose
Advanced EMT (Limited ALS)AEMT / LALSAll BLS + IV/IO access, Albuterol nebulized 2.5 mg, Epi 1mg/ml IM for bronchospasm/allergic reactions, D10W, Glucagon, Aspirin, NTG, fluid boluses. External jugular access (not ≤8 yr). IO in pediatric ≤8 yr only.
ParamedicEMT-P / ALSAll BLS + LALS + full drug formulary, 12-lead ECG, advanced airways (ETI, SGA, needle cric), cardioversion, pacing, IO all ages, Midazolam, Fentanyl, Ketamine, Adenosine, Atropine, Lidocaine, MgSO4, and more
⚠ ICEMA Scope Trap
ETI (oral endotracheal intubation) by paramedics is permitted only in patients taller than the maximum length of a pediatric measuring tape (Broselow) — the height rule, not just age. If a child is small enough to fit the Broselow tape, you cannot intubate orotracheally; use SGA as backup if BVM fails.

Standing Orders vs. Base Hospital Orders

Standing orders (= protocols you can execute without radio contact) constitute the bulk of paramedic practice under ICEMA. You do not need base hospital contact for:

  • Administering Fentanyl, Ketamine (analgesic doses), Midazolam (seizure/behavioral), Adenosine, Atropine, Lidocaine, Epinephrine, Albuterol/Atrovent, NTG, Aspirin, Naloxone, D10W, Glucagon, TXA (trauma — within standing order criteria), Ondansetron, Acetaminophen, Magnesium (eclampsia), and most others listed in Ref 11010
  • Transcutaneous pacing (after Atropine failure for documented MI, 3rd-degree AVB, 2nd-degree Type II)
  • Needle thoracostomy (when criteria are met)
  • Termination of resuscitation in the field (if strict criteria met, no BH contact required)

Base hospital contact IS required for:

Medication/InterventionWhen BH Required
Calcium ChlorideAll uses (CCB poisoning, cardiac arrest, ESRD hyperkalemia, crush) except crush injury where it's a standing order
Sodium BicarbonateTCA poisoning, cardiac arrest with acidosis/hyperkalemia/TCA — all BH orders. Exception: crush injury hyperkalemia is standing order
Glucagon IV/IOBeta-blocker poisoning
Magnesium SulfateSevere asthma/respiratory distress (NOT eclampsia — that's standing order)
Midazolam for post-intubation agitationBH order; repeat dose also BH
Midazolam peds behavioral (under 9 yr)BH order
TXA for postpartum hemorrhageBH order
CPAP for awake burn patient with inhalation injuryBH consultation before use
Cardioversion at 360J (repeated attempts after standard escalation)BH order for continued attempts
Anterior distal femur IO siteBH contact required
VF/pulseless VT persisting >20 min CPRConsult BH
Pediatric termination of effortsAlways requires BH contact
Penetrating traumatic arrest terminationAlways requires BH contact

When Must You Contact Base Hospital?

Beyond medication orders above, mandatory BH contact is required:

  • Any STEMI with active notification to the STEMI Receiving Center
  • SVT not converting after Adenosine (contact BH after cardioversion)
  • Atrial Fib/Flutter (for unstable patients proceeding to cardioversion)
  • VT/Wide complex tachycardia requiring Lidocaine or cardioversion (contact after interventions)
  • Pacing — contact BH if rhythm persists or inadequate perfusion continues
  • Fentanyl or Midazolam beyond max doses (contact for additional orders)
  • Behavioral emergencies: after 3 doses Midazolam, for additional orders
  • Seizures: after 3 doses Midazolam, for additional orders
  • mLAPSS negative stroke with clinical suspicion
  • Any pain medication switch mid-treatment (e.g., from Fentanyl to Ketamine)
  • Newborn: suspected hypovolemia, persistent hypotension
  • ROSC transport decision: if closest STEMI center is >30 min, BH may direct to closest receiving hospital

Documentation Requirements (Ref 5020, 5030)

  • ePCR required for all patients. Upload rhythm strip with copy to receiving hospital.
  • 12-lead ECG must be uploaded/transmitted for AMI and cardiac arrest ROSC
  • Capnography: waveform and numerical value (mmHg) must be documented in ePCR for all intubated patients and cardiac arrest
  • Pain scales every 5 minutes while administering analgesics
  • Vital signs every 5 minutes during analgesic administration (trauma/burns)
  • Document all failed procedures per Ref 11020
  • Unsuccessful intubation attempts: document per Ref 11020
  • Blood glucose readings must be documented
  • APGAR at 1 and 5 minutes for all field deliveries
  • Who received an amputated part must be documented in the narrative

Common Protocol Pitfalls

🚨 Top Test Traps
  1. NTG with RVI/inferior STEMI: NTG is contraindicated with signs of inadequate perfusion or RVI. You need a right-sided 12-lead (V4R) when inferior infarct is suspected. If RVI present — give fluids (300 ml NS bolus), hold NTG.
  2. NTG within 48 hours of sexual enhancement medication (PDE5 inhibitors): absolute contraindication.
  3. Dextrose thresholds: Adult BG <80 mg/dL. Neonate BG <35 mg/dL. Pediatric (>4 weeks) BG <60 mg/dL. These are ICEMA-specific — not universal.
  4. Ketamine for pain: ADULT ONLY (≥15 years). Not indicated for pediatric pain per ICEMA protocol. Also: must be IV drip (50-100 mL NS over 5 min) — NOT IVP, IO, IM, or IN.
  5. Adenosine for wide complex tachycardia: Only if rate is regular AND QRS is monomorphic. Contraindicated for unstable rhythms, irregular WCT, or polymorphic WCT.
  6. TXA criteria: Within 3 hours of injury, AND one of: SBP <90, HR ≥120, or bleeding not controlled. Peds TXA: NOT indicated per ICEMA protocol.
  7. IO access: Anterior distal femur requires BH order. Humeral head IO: ALS (9+ yr) only.
  8. Cardioversion joules: Start at 100J (biphasic equivalent); escalate 200, 300, 360J. Defibrillation: 360J monophasic or biphasic equivalent.
  9. Capnography: Required for ALL cardiac arrest patients. Required for monitoring after Midazolam for behavioral emergencies. Required when any respiratory-depressant medication is given.
  10. Spinal motion restriction: Use NSAID acronym. Penetrating trauma WITHOUT any NSAID criteria = NOT a candidate for SMR. LBB is an extrication tool — not a spinal treatment device.
Section 02

Patient Assessment Priorities

Scene Safety & Initial Priorities (Ref 12010)

ICEMA's Patient Care Guidelines (Ref 12010) establish minimum care standards. The global assessment approach is: Scene Safety → ABCs → Vitals → History → Treatment → Transport Decision.

  • Obtain oxygen saturation on room air first (when safe and not detrimental) before applying O2
  • Note home O2 flow rate for COPD patients — get baseline on their O2, not your flow
  • Scene control/decontamination before patient contact for hazmat, organophosphate, or CBRN events

Oxygen Administration (Ref 11010)

⚠ ICEMA Oxygen Rules — Critical for Testing
  • General (non-COPD): Titrate to maintain SpO₂ at 94%. Do NOT give supplemental O2 if SpO₂ >95%.
  • COPD: Titrate to maintain SpO₂ at 90%. Do NOT give supplemental O2 if SpO₂ >91%.
  • CO poisoning/smoke inhalation: 100% O2 via NRB (SpO₂ unreliable with CO — still give 100%).
  • Hyperoxia is actively contraindicated in non-COPD patients at SpO₂ >95% and COPD >91%.

Vital Signs & Monitoring

Glasgow Coma Scale (Ref 12020)

DomainScoreResponse
Eye Opening4Spontaneous
3To voice
2To pain
1None
Best Verbal5Oriented
4Confused
3Inappropriate words
2Incomprehensible sounds
1None
Best Motor6Obeys commands
5Purposeful (localizes)
4Withdrawal
3Abnormal flexion
2Extension
1None

Trauma triage GCS threshold: ≤13. GCS altered mental status definition: <15 or <patient's normal baseline (Ref 14060).

Blood Glucose Thresholds

PopulationTreat if BG belowTreatment
Adult / Pediatric >4 weeks<80 mg/dL (adult), <60 mg/dL (peds >4 wk)Oral glucose (if gag intact), D10W IV/IO
Neonate (0–4 weeks)<35 mg/dLD10W 0.5 gm/kg (5 ml/kg) IV/IO

12-Lead ECG Indications (Ref 11020)

12-lead should be performed on any patient with:

  • Typical or atypical chest pain
  • Syncope
  • Prior AMI, heart disease, or associated risk factors
  • Suspected cardiac rhythm disorder (before medication when possible)
  • Cardiac arrest ROSC
  • Tachycardia workup (ALS)
  • Crush injury (check for hyperkalemia signs)
  • Suspected AMI with inferior wall: obtain right-sided 12-lead (V4R)
Protocol Note
ICEMA Ref 11020 states: "ECG should be performed prior to medication administration." Practical corollary: obtain the 12-lead early, but do NOT delay time-sensitive treatments like Epi in arrest or cardioversion in unstable tachycardia for the sake of a clean ECG.

Pediatric Assessment Triangle (PAT)

Though ICEMA does not formally name the PAT in the protocol text, peds assessment priorities align with the three domains:

ComponentWhat to Look ForICEMA Application
Appearance (Tone, Interactivity, Consolability, Look/Gaze, Speech/Cry)Altered behavior for age, inability to recognize caregiver, limp/ineffective cryKey indicator of AMS for peds — no numeric GCS cut-off stated for infants
Work of BreathingPosition of comfort, accessory muscle use, nasal flaring, retractions, abnormal soundsDrives Albuterol, Epi, advanced airway decisions per Ref 14120
Circulation to SkinPallor, mottling, cyanosis, capillary refill >2 secPoor perfusion → fluids (20 ml/kg), Push Dose Epi if no response

Reassessment Requirements

  • Analgesic administration: Vital signs and pain scale documented every 5 minutes until arrival
  • After Midazolam (behavioral): Capnography must be applied and monitored; continuous monitoring required
  • After Naloxone: Assess and document response to therapy
  • Blood glucose: May repeat after Dextrose administration; repeat Dextrose if still indicated
  • Cardiac arrest: Rhythm check no more than 10 seconds every 2-minute CPR cycle
  • Paced patient: Reassess peripheral pulses; adjust output to compensate for loss of capture
Section 03

Adult Medical Protocols

Respiratory Emergencies — Adult (Ref 14010)

COPD

  • O2: titrate to SpO₂ 90%; do NOT exceed 91%
  • LALS: Albuterol 2.5 mg neb, may repeat ×2
  • ALS: Albuterol + Atrovent 0.5 mg neb (one dose only); CPAP; consider Midazolam 1 mg IV/IO/IM/IN for CPAP anxiety (if SBP >90)
  • Advanced airway if all else fails

Asthma / Bronchospasm / Severe Allergic Reaction (same protocol Ref 14010)

  • BLS (severe asthma and/or anaphylaxis only): Epi 0.3 mg auto-injector; may repeat ×1 after 15 min
  • LALS: Albuterol neb; if no response → Epi 0.3 mg IM (1 mg/ml); may repeat ×1 after 15 min; IV bolus 300 ml NS if poor perfusion
  • ALS: Albuterol + Atrovent; Diphenhydramine (suspected allergic reaction); CPAP; for persistent severe anaphylaxis: Epi (0.1 mg/ml) 0.1 mg slow IVP/IO, may repeat q5 min to max 0.5 mg total
  • BH order only: MgSO4 2 gm IV drip over 20 min for refractory severe asthma

Acute Pulmonary Edema / CHF (same Ref 14010 section)

  • LALS: NTG 0.4 mg SL q3 min (contraindicated if SBP <100); Albuterol neb if symptoms persist after NTG
  • ALS: CPAP; Midazolam 1 mg ×1 for CPAP anxiety (if SBP >90); advanced airway if needed
Test Trap — CHF vs. COPD on CPAP
CPAP is indicated for both CHF and COPD in ICEMA. The Midazolam 1 mg for anxiety is protocol for BOTH, but only if SBP >90 mm Hg. Midazolam for CPAP anxiety is a one-time dose — contact BH for additional.

Chest Pain / Suspected AMI (Ref 14240)

BLS

  • O2 as clinically indicated; SpO₂; position of comfort
  • Assist patient with self-administration of their own NTG or Aspirin

LALS

  • Aspirin 325 mg PO chewed (or 4 × 81 mg chewable)
  • IV access; 300 ml NS bolus if poor perfusion and clear lungs
  • NTG 0.4 mg SL q3 min (as long as adequate perfusion). NTG contraindicated if: hypotension (signs of poor perfusion), RVI, PDE5 inhibitor use within 48 hr
  • Complete thrombolytic checklist if time permits
  • Contact base hospital

ALS

  • All LALS + 12-lead ECG (do not disconnect cables until necessary)
  • If inferior wall infarct suspected: obtain V4R (right-sided 12-lead)
  • If RVI with poor perfusion: 300 ml NS bolus; hold NTG
  • STEMI identified (ST elevation ≥2 contiguous leads): early STEMI notification to receiving center; expeditious transport
  • Fentanyl 50 mcg IV/IO over 1 min, may repeat q5 min; max 200 mcg. Or Fentanyl 100 mcg IM/IN, repeat 50 mcg q10 min; max 200 mcg any combination of routes
  • Repeat 12-lead at intervals; do not delay transport
STEMI Destination Rule
  • STEMI confirmed → closest STEMI Receiving Center (bypass if necessary)
  • ROSC of unknown/cardiac etiology (regardless of 12-lead) → closest STEMI Receiving Center, unless >30 min away, in which case transport to closest receiving hospital
  • Difficult airway → closest receiving hospital (do not bypass)

Bradycardia — Adult (Ref 14030)

Stable Bradycardia (HR <60, adequate perfusion)

  • Observe; IV 300 ml NS if lungs clear; cardiac monitor, 12-lead
  • No medication required unless instability develops

Unstable Bradycardia (HR <60 + inadequate perfusion, ALOC, or ischemic chest pain)

  • IV bolus 300 ml NS ×1
  • Atropine 1 mg IV/IO; may repeat q5 min; max 3 mg total (or 0.04 mg/kg)
  • If Atropine ineffective, OR if documented MI / 3rd-degree AVB with wide complex / 2nd-degree Type II: transcutaneous pacing (TCP)
  • TCP: start at rate 60, lowest mA for capture; reassess pulses; increase rate up to 100 max for adequate perfusion
  • Premedicate: Midazolam + Fentanyl (per Ref 11010) for comfort/anxiety
  • BH order: Calcium Chloride 1 gm IV/IO for ESRD dialysis patients with hyperkalemia + hemodynamic instability with documented rhythm
  • Contact BH if interventions unsuccessful

Tachycardia — Adult (Ref 14040)

Protocol applies to HR >150 bpm. Always determine and 12-lead to define rhythm.

Narrow Complex SVT (stable)

  • NS bolus 300 ml IV
  • Valsalva/vagal maneuvers (contraindicated if hypertension, suspected STEMI, or head injury)
  • Adenosine 6 mg rapid IVP + 20 ml NS flush; if no conversion: Adenosine 12 mg IVP + 20 ml NS; may repeat 12 mg ×1 more
  • If no conversion: synchronized cardioversion 100J → 200J → 300J → 360J
  • Contact BH

V-Tach / Wide Complex Tachycardia with pulse (stable, regular, monomorphic)

  • Consider Adenosine if regular and monomorphic (rule out SVT with aberrancy)
  • Lidocaine 1.5 mg/kg slow IV/IO; may repeat 0.75 mg/kg; max 3 mg/kg
  • Precordial thump: witnessed spontaneous VT only if defib not immediately available
  • Synchronized cardioversion if above fails
  • Contact BH

Polymorphic V-Tach (Torsades)

  • Immediate unsynchronized cardioversion (defibrillation)
  • Magnesium Sulfate 2 gm IV/IO bolus over 5 min if prolonged QT observed in sinus post-cardioversion

Unstable Tachycardia (any type with poor perfusion)

  • Immediate synchronized cardioversion (A-fib/flutter, wide complex, narrow complex SVT)
  • Contact BH
Adenosine Contraindications
Adenosine is CONTRAINDICATED for: unstable rhythms, irregular WCT, or polymorphic WCT. Only use for regular, monomorphic wide complex tachycardias when SVT with aberrancy is being considered.

Cardiac Arrest — Adult (Ref 14050)

Core HP-CPR Principles

  • Compression depth: 2–2.5 inches, full recoil, no leaning
  • Rate: 100–120/min; rotate compressors every 2 min
  • Ventilations: minimal chest rise, avoid hyperventilation
  • Minimize interruptions; rhythm check max 10 sec per cycle
  • Automatic compression devices: NON-TRAUMATIC arrest only

VF / Pulseless VT

  • Defibrillate 360J monophasic (biphasic equivalent); if unknown biphasic equivalent: max available
  • Immediately resume CPR after shock — NO post-shock pulse check
  • Epi 1 mg IV/IO every 5 min (no interruption of CPR unless ETCO₂ indicates ROSC)
  • After 2 cycles HP-CPR: Lidocaine 1.5 mg/kg IV/IO; may repeat 0.75 mg/kg; max 3 mg/kg
  • After 20 min pulseless VF/VT: consult BH

PEA / Asystole

  • Treat reversible causes (H's and T's)
  • Fluid bolus 300 ml NS IV, may repeat
  • Epi 1 mg IV/IO every 5 min
  • BH order: NaHCO3, Calcium Chloride

Stable ROSC

  • 12-lead ECG → transport to closest STEMI Receiving Center (regardless of ECG findings)
  • ETCO₂ target: 35–45 mmHg; continuous capnography
  • For persistent shock: Push Dose Epi (0.01 mg/ml solution), 1 ml IV q1–5 min, titrate SBP >90
  • BH may order Midazolam for post-ROSC agitation

Termination of Efforts — Prehospital

Field TOR Criteria (NO BH contact required if all met)
All THREE must be present:
  1. ETCO₂ waveform <15 mmHg after 20 minutes HP-CPR with ALS
  2. No ROSC
  3. AND any one of: no shocks delivered, arrest not witnessed by EMS, persistent asystole/agonal/PEA <40 bpm
If ANY sign of pending ROSC (ETCO₂ trending up, PEA >40 bpm) → transport to STEMI Receiving Center. Contact law enforcement.

Stroke / CVA (Ref 14080)

mLAPSS Screen

Patient is mLAPSS POSITIVE if "yes" to criteria 1–5 AND unilateral weakness on criterion 6:

  1. Age >17 years
  2. No prior history of seizure disorder
  3. New onset neurologic symptoms in last 24 hours
  4. Ambulatory at baseline prior to event
  5. Blood glucose between 60 and 400
  6. Unilateral weakness (facial droop, grip deficit, or arm drift)

LAMS Score (if mLAPSS positive)

Domain012
FaceBoth sides move normallyOne side weak/flaccid
ArmBoth sides normalOne side weakOne side flaccid/no movement
GripBoth sides normalOne side weakOne side flaccid/no movement

LAMS ≥4 = consider Large Vessel Occlusion (LVO)

Destination Decision

Obtain and document family phone number; bring patient's cell phone if no family present. Thrombolytic assessment if time allows.

Seizures / Altered Level of Consciousness — Adult (Ref 14060)

Hypoglycemia (Ref 14060 + Ref 11010)

Overdose / Poisoning (Ref 13010)

Opioid OD / Naloxone (Ref 11010)
  • BLS/LALS/ALS: Naloxone 0.5 mg IV/IO/IM/IN q2–3 min PRN respiratory depression
  • Suspected FENTANYL OD: consider loading dose 4 mg IN; may repeat ×1; then 0.5 mg q2–3 min if needed
  • Total max: 10 mg regardless of route
  • Goal: adequate respiratory effort, NOT full reversal/combative patient

Sepsis — Adult (Ref 14280)

ICEMA defines sepsis indicators as possible infection + ≥2 of:

Treatment: O2; IV access; 500 ml NS bolus (may repeat ×1); check and treat BG; monitor EtCO₂; 12-lead; Push Dose Epi if profound hypotension unresponsive to fluids; early notification and transport.

ICEMA Sepsis Pearls
  • EtCO₂ <25 is in the sepsis criteria — capnography is a diagnostic tool here, not just monitoring
  • Hypotension is a LATE indicator for septic shock (explicitly stated in protocol)
  • If pulmonary edema develops: stop or limit fluid boluses

Allergic Reaction / Anaphylaxis (Ref 14010)

See Respiratory Emergencies section above — ICEMA combines asthma/allergic reaction/anaphylaxis in Ref 14010.

Anaphylactic shock definition: No palpable radial pulse AND depressed LOC → Epi IV/IO 0.1 mg/ml (0.1 mg slow IVP)

Shock — Non-Traumatic (Ref 14230)

Indicators: SBP <90 (adult) or SBP <70 (peds). Assess for: GI bleed, vomiting/diarrhea, fever/sepsis, vaginal bleeding, OHCA post-ROSC, hypoglycemia, opioid OD.

Pain Management (Ref 14100)

Indications: acute traumatic injuries, acute abdominal/flank pain, burn injuries, cancer pain, sickle cell crisis. Inability to recall traumatic incident does not preclude pain medication.

BPPain ScaleOptions
SBP >1006–10 (mod-severe)Fentanyl IV/IO or IM/IN, OR Ketamine (adult ≥15 yr only)
SBP >1001–5 (mild-moderate)Acetaminophen IV 1 gm over 15 min
SBP <1006–10Ketamine (adult ≥15 yr only — NOT Fentanyl; hemodynamics), OR Acetaminophen
Any BPModerate-severe, meds contraindicatedAcetaminophen IV

Switching analgesic agents mid-treatment requires base hospital contact. Continuous ECG and capnography required for Fentanyl or Ketamine.

Behavioral Emergencies (Ref 14110)

Section 04

Trauma Protocols

Trauma Triage Criteria (Ref 9040)

Transport to closest Trauma Center if ANY ONE criterion is met:

Step 1 — Physiologic Indicators (Transport to TC)

  • GCS ≤13
  • RR <10 or >29 (infants <1 yr: RR <20) or need for ventilatory support
  • SBP <90 (adult); abnormal age-appropriate VS (peds); signs of inadequate tissue perfusion

Step 2 — Anatomic Indicators (Transport to TC)

  • Penetrating injuries: head, neck, torso, or extremities proximal to knee/elbow
  • Blunt chest trauma: chest wall instability/deformity (flail chest, ecchymosis)
  • ≥2 proximal long bone fractures (femur, humerus)
  • Crushed, degloved, mangled, or pulseless extremity
  • Amputation proximal to wrist or ankle
  • Pelvic fractures
  • Open or depressed skull fracture
  • Paralysis

Step 3 — Mechanism of Injury (consult trauma BH if no physio/anatomic criteria)

  • Falls: adult >20 ft; peds >10 ft or 2–3× child's height
  • High-risk auto crash: intrusion >12 in, ejection (partial/complete), death in passenger compartment, vehicle telemetry consistent with high-risk injury, child 0–9 unrestrained
  • Auto vs. pedestrian/bicyclist run over or impact >20 mph
  • Motorcycle crash >20 mph

Step 4 — Age/Co-Morbid Factors (contact trauma BH to determine destination)

  • Adults >65 (SBP <110 may represent shock; low-impact MOI may cause severe injury)
  • Anticoagulants or bleeding disorders
  • Pediatric patients (14 yr and younger); suspected child abuse
  • Pregnancy >20 weeks
  • EMS provider judgment
Pediatric TC Rule
Peds meeting trauma triage criteria → Pediatric Trauma Center IF transport time difference ≤20 min compared to closest adult TC.

Spinal Motion Restriction (Refs 11020, 14090)

Use the NSAID acronym to determine if SMR is indicated:

  • N — Neuro Deficit(s) present?
  • S — Spinal Tenderness present?
  • A — Altered Mental Status?
  • I — Intoxication?
  • D — Distracting Injury?
Critical Spinal Rules
  • Penetrating trauma with NO NSAID criteria = NOT a candidate for SMR (this includes GSW — do not board)
  • Long backboard (LBB) is an extrication tool only, not a spinal treatment device. Remove from patients as soon as safe/practical.
  • ALS/LALS can and should remove LBBs placed by BLS first responders if NSAID criteria are not met
  • SMR should use spinal alignment on gurney or cervical collar on cooperative patients, avoiding rigid backboard when possible

Hemorrhage Control

  • Direct pressure and/or pressure dressing as first line
  • When direct pressure fails for life-threatening extremity bleeding: tourniquet
  • Tourniquet is standing order — apply before IV access in threatening extremity hemorrhage

Trauma Fluid Resuscitation (Ref 14090 — ALS)

Injury TypeHemodynamically StableHemodynamically Unstable (SBP <90)
Blunt traumaSaline lock only — NO fluids250 ml NS bolus; may repeat ×1 (max 500 ml)
Penetrating traumaSaline lock only — NO fluidsSaline lock only — NO fluids
Isolated closed head injurySaline lock only — NO fluids250 ml NS bolus; may repeat ×1 (max 500 ml)
Isolated extremity traumaSaline lock only — NO fluids250 ml NS bolus; may repeat ×1 (max 500 ml)
Crush injury / suspected hyperkalemia500 ml NS bolus; may repeat ×1 (max 1000 ml)Same — 500 ml ×2
Penetrating Trauma = SALINE LOCK ONLY regardless of BP
No IV fluids for penetrating trauma. Permissive hypotension. This is a major ICEMA-specific distinction from generic trauma teaching.

TXA — Tranexamic Acid (Ref 11010, 14090)

TXA is a standing ALS order for TRAUMA in patients ≥15 years when:

  • Within 3 hours of injury, AND any one of:
  • SBP <90 (signs/symptoms of hemorrhagic shock), OR
  • HR ≥120 (significant hemorrhage), OR
  • Bleeding not controlled by direct pressure or tourniquet

Dose: TXA 2 gm slow IV/IO over 1 min, OR 1 gm as 2 × 5 ml IM injections

Postpartum hemorrhage: TXA requires BH order (same criteria; within 3 hr of onset)

TXA Test Traps
  • Pediatric TXA: NOT indicated in ICEMA protocols
  • TXA is NOT a BH order for trauma — it's a standing ALS order when criteria are met
  • Time window is 3 hours from injury (not from onset of shock)

Head Trauma

  • Elevate HOB 15–20° (reverse Trendelenburg) if NO signs of shock
  • If shock present: keep supine
  • Maintain SpO₂ ≥94%; avoid hypoxia and hyperventilation
  • Isolated closed head injury fluids: stable = saline lock; unstable = 250 ml NS max 500 ml
  • Do NOT hyperventilate (causes cerebral vasoconstriction, worsens outcome)

Chest Trauma

  • Open chest wound: occlusive dressing; if patient is being ventilated, dress loosely (do NOT seal)
  • Continuously reassess for tension pneumothorax development
  • Flail chest: stabilize; consider assisted ventilation; watch for tension PTX

Needle Thoracostomy (Ref 11020)

Standing ALS order when ALL criteria met:

  • SBP <90, clinical signs of shock, AND at least one of:
  • JVD
  • Tracheal deviation away from side of injury (late sign)
  • Absent/decreased breath sounds on affected side
  • Increased resistance when ventilating

Preferred site: midaxillary line at 5th ICS. Consider bilateral if no improvement or in traumatic cardiac arrest.

Burns — Adult (Ref 14070)

ClassificationCriteriaDestination
Minor<10% TBSA; <2% full thicknessClosest appropriate receiving hospital
Moderate10–20% TBSA; 2–5% full thickness; high voltage; suspected inhalation injury; circumferential burn; diabetes/sickle cellClosest appropriate receiving hospital
Major>20% TBSA; >5% full thickness; known inhalation injury; significant burn to face/eyes/ears/genitalia/jointsClosest BURN CENTER (SB County: ARMC)
CTP with burnsCritical trauma patient with associated burnsClosest TRAUMA CENTER; contact trauma BH

IV fluids for burns: Stable (SBP >90): NS 500 ml/hr. Unstable (SBP <90): 2nd IV; 500 ml NS bolus, may repeat; max 1000 ml.

Do NOT break blisters. Do NOT apply ice. Electrical burns: AED on patient; treat cardiac arrest as medical arrest.

Awake patients with potential facial/inhalation burns: NOT candidates for nasal tracheal intubation. CPAP may be considered after BH consultation.

Crush Injury (Ref 14090)

For prolonged entrapment and/or abnormal ECG findings suggesting hyperkalemia:

  • IV 500 ml NS bolus; may repeat ×1 (max 1000 ml)
  • Albuterol 2.5 mg neb (may repeat ×2 or continuous 7.5 mg) — drives K⁺ into cells
  • Calcium Chloride 1 gm IV/IO — membrane stabilization
  • Sodium Bicarbonate 50 mEq IV/IO — alkalinization shifts K⁺ intracellularly
  • 12-lead ECG to assess for hyperkalemia (peaked T waves, wide QRS, sine wave)

Traumatic Cardiac Arrest

  • Automatic compression devices (mCPR): CONTRAINDICATED for trauma
  • Initiate CPR, hemorrhage control, needle thoracostomy if indicated → immediate transport; all other procedures en route
  • Transport to closest TC if distance <20 min from closest hospital
  • Blunt traumatic arrest: if no ROSC after defibrillation × 3 or conversion to non-shockable → consider pronouncing on scene
  • Penetrating traumatic arrest: transport; NEVER terminate without BH contact
Section 05

Pediatric Protocols

ICEMA Pediatric Definition
Pediatric = <15 years of age throughout all ICEMA protocols. Neonatal = 0–4 weeks.

Pediatric Respiratory Distress (Ref 14120)

  • LALS: Albuterol 2.5 mg neb (repeat ×2); if no response → Epi 0.01 mg/kg IM (max 0.3 mg; repeat ×1 q15 min)
  • ALS: Albuterol + Atrovent neb (Atrovent dose: <1 yr = 0.25 mg; 1–14 yr = 0.5 mg, single dose); if no response → Epi 0.01 mg/kg IM; vascular access TKO
  • BH order: MgSO4 50 mg/kg slow IV over 20 min (max 2 gm) for refractory severe asthma
  • Intubation: only if taller than Broselow max length

Pediatric Seizures (Ref 14170)

  • BLS: airway; left lateral position; blood glucose; oral glucose if gag intact and BG <60; Naloxone if suspected OD
  • LALS: IV; D10W 0.5 gm/kg if BG <60; Glucagon if no IV
  • ALS: Midazolam 0.1 mg/kg IV/IO (max 2.5 mg/dose), repeat q5 min; OR 0.2 mg/kg IM/IN (max 5 mg/dose), repeat q10 min; max 3 doses any combination
  • After 3 doses: contact BH
  • Febrile seizures: remove excess clothing, cooling measures
  • Advanced airway: only if taller than Broselow max

Pediatric Cardiac Arrest (Ref 14150)

HP-CPR Principles

  • Compression depth: at least 1/3 AP diameter of chest until puberty
  • Rate: 100–120/min; rotate q2 min; avoid hyperventilation
  • Ventilation rate: 12–20/min (decreases with age); minimal chest rise
  • No automatic compression devices for peds
  • IO preferred for <9 yr; IV or IO for 9–14 yr
  • Family should be offered option to be present during resuscitation
  • Termination of efforts: always requires BH contact in pediatric arrest

VF/Pulseless VT

  • Initial defibrillation: 2 j/kg; 2nd shock: 4 j/kg; 3rd and subsequent: 10 j/kg (max adult dose)
  • Epi (0.1 mg/ml) per age: 1 day–8 yr = 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO; 9–14 yr = 1.0 mg IV/IO; q5 min
  • After 2 HP-CPR cycles: Lidocaine 1.0 mg/kg IV/IO; may repeat 0.5 mg/kg q5 min; max 3 mg/kg
  • After 20 min pulseless VF/VT: consult BH

PEA/Asystole

  • Fluid bolus: 1 day–8 yr = 20 ml/kg NS; 9–14 yr = 300 ml NS; may repeat
  • Epi 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO q5 min (do not exceed adult dose)

ROSC

  • 12-lead; transport to closest receiving hospital
  • Blood glucose; D10W if BG <60
  • Naloxone if suspected opioid OD
  • Persistent SBP <70: Push Dose Epi (0.01 mg/ml) 0.1 ml/kg IV q1–5 min, titrate SBP >70

Pediatric Shock (Ref 14160, 14230)

  • LALS/ALS threshold: SBP <70 mmHg (peds)
  • Fluid bolus: 20 ml/kg NS IV/IO; may repeat ×1 for tachycardia, central/peripheral pulse change, or ALOC
  • If no response to fluids: Push Dose Epi 0.1 ml/kg (0.01 mg/ml solution), titrate SBP >70

Pediatric Medication Dosing Summary

DrugPediatric DoseKey Notes
Epinephrine 1:1000 IM0.01 mg/kg IM; max 0.3 mgBronchospasm/allergic; repeat ×1 q15 min
Epinephrine 1:10,000 IV/IO1 day–8 yr: 0.01 mg/kg; 9–14 yr: 1.0 mgCardiac arrest; q5 min
Epinephrine IV anaphylaxis0.01 mg/kg (max 0.1 mg/dose); max 0.5 mg totalNo radial pulse + depressed LOC
Naloxone BLS1 day–8 yr: 0.1 mg/kg IM/IN (max 0.5 mg/dose); 9–14 yr: 0.5 mg IM/INMax 10 mg total; q2–3 min PRN
Midazolam IV/IO (seizure)0.1 mg/kg; max 2.5 mg/doseMax 3 doses; repeat q5 min
Midazolam IM/IN (seizure)0.2 mg/kg; max 5 mg/doseMax 3 doses; repeat q10 min
Dextrose D10W0.5 gm/kg (5 ml/kg) IV/IOPeds BG <60 (>4 wk); neonate BG <35
Glucagon0.03 mg/kg IM/IN; max 1 mg totalIf no IV; may repeat ×1 after 20 min
Albuterol neb2.5 mg neb; repeat ×2Same dose all peds ages
Atrovent neb<12 mo: 0.25 mg; 1–14 yr: 0.5 mgSingle dose only
Fentanyl IV/IO0.5 mcg/kg slow IV/IO over 1 min; max 50 mcg/doseRepeat q5 min; max 4 doses or 200 mcg total
Fentanyl IM/IN1 mcg/kg; max 100 mcg/doseRepeat q10 min; max 4 doses or 200 mcg cumulative
Diphenhydramine IV/IO2–14 yr: 1 mg/kg slow IV/IO; max 25 mgAllergic reaction
Diphenhydramine IM2 mg/kg IM; max 50 mgAllergic reaction; 2+ yr only
Acetaminophen IV2–14 yr: 15 mg/kg; max 1 gm over 15 minSingle dose only; mild-moderate pain
Ondansetron4–8 yr: max 4 mg total (before BH); ≥9 yr: same as adultNot indicated <4 yr
Lidocaine IV/IO (arrest)1.0 mg/kg IV/IO; repeat 0.5 mg/kg q5 min; max 3 mg/kgVF/VT pulseless
Lidocaine IO pain0.5 mg/kg slow IO over 2 min; max 40 mgIO infusion pain
NS fluid bolus (general shock)20 ml/kg IV/IOMay repeat; 9–14 yr: 300 ml instead

Pediatric Destination Rules

  • Trauma: Pediatric TC if transport time difference ≤20 min vs closest adult TC
  • Burns: Pediatric TC if criteria + transport time ≤20 min difference
  • Cardiac arrest ROSC: closest receiving hospital (not STEMI center for peds)
  • Stroke <17 yr: consider closest stroke center
  • Traumatic arrest: closest receiving hospital
  • Behavioral emergency <9 yr: BH order before Midazolam
Section 06

OB / Neonatal Protocols

Normal Delivery (Ref 14200 + 14210)

  1. When head delivers: suction mouth then nose; check for nuchal cord
  2. Dry infant; provide warm environment; remove wet towel to prevent heat loss
  3. Place baby at or near level of mother's vagina
  4. After cord stops pulsating: double clamp at 7 and 10 inches from baby; cut between clamps
  5. Maintain airway; suction mouth and nose; tactile stimulation
  6. Assess breathing; if RR <20 or gasping: tactile stimulation + BVM if indicated
  7. Fundal massage after placenta delivers
  8. APGAR at 1 and 5 minutes (do NOT use APGAR to determine need to resuscitate)

APGAR Score

Sign012
Heart RateAbsent<100/min>100/min
RespirationsAbsent<20 or irregular>20 or crying
Muscle ToneLimpSome flexionActive motion
Reflex IrritabilityNo responseGrimaceCough or sneeze
ColorBlue or paleBlue extremitiesCompletely pink

Score 7–10: normal. Score 4–6: moderate distress. Score <4: severe distress. Always calculate at 1 and 5 min.

Neonatal Resuscitation (Ref 14200)

  • HR >100, breathing >20: warm/dry/stimulate; supplemental O2 if cyanotic
  • HR <100 but >60: BVM 100% O2 for 30 sec; reassess; if still <100 but >60: re-evaluate BVM/reposition airway
  • HR <60 after above: begin chest compressions + ventilations at 3:1 ratio (~100 comp + 30 vent/min)
  • Central cyanosis: supplemental O2 10–15 L/min via tubing near nose; reassess 30 sec; if no improvement: BVM
  • BG <35 mg/dL: D10W 0.5 gm/kg (5 ml/kg) IV/IO
  • HR <60 after 1 min despite adequate airway/temperature: Epi (0.1 mg/ml) 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO
  • Suspected hypovolemia: BH order (or extended transport): 10 ml/kg NS IV over 5 min; may repeat
  • Persistent hypotension despite vent/fluids: BH order (or extended transport): Epi (0.1 mg/ml) 0.005 mg/kg IV/IO q10 min
Newborn Airway Priority
Always evaluate and address AIRWAY (hypoxia) and TEMPERATURE (hypothermia) before considering Epinephrine in the newborn. If heart rate is <60 and you have a minute of corrections, then give Epi.

Complicated Delivery (Ref 14210)

Excessive Vaginal Bleeding (Antepartum)

  • Do NOT place anything in vagina; attempt to control external bleeding
  • Trendelenburg position
  • LALS/ALS: IV access; 500 ml NS fluid challenge (repeat if poor perfusion); maintain 150 ml/hr; establish 2nd large bore IV en route

Prolapsed Cord

  • Elevate hips; gently push presenting part away from cord
  • Knee-chest position for mother
  • Code 3 transport

Breech Presentation

  • Head not delivered within 3–4 min after body: Trendelenburg; O2; Code 3 to closest appropriate facility

Cord Around Neck (Nuchal Cord)

  • Attempt to slip cord over head
  • If unable: deliver baby through cord
  • If unable to deliver through cord: double clamp and cut

Postpartum Hemorrhage (PPH)

  • Fundal massage to control bleeding
  • Encourage immediate breast feeding (oxytocin release)
  • Trendelenburg position
  • LALS/ALS: IV 500 ml NS; maintain 150 ml/hr; 2nd large bore IV
  • For hemorrhagic shock (SBP <70, OR SBP <90 + HR ≥110): blood products (LOSOP approved providers only)
  • TXA for PPH: requires BH order — within 3 hr of onset; SBP <90 or HR ≥120

Eclampsia (Seizures in Pregnancy)

  • ALS STANDING ORDER: Magnesium Sulfate 4 gm IV/IO slow push over 3–4 min
  • Then: MgSO4 10 mg/min IV drip to prevent continued seizures
  • AND: Midazolam per seizure protocol if active seizure
  • IV TKO; limit fluids; left lateral position; reduce stimuli; BP monitoring

Pregnancy-Induced Hypertension (without seizures)

  • IV TKO; limit fluid intake; left lateral position; obtain BPs after 5 min lateral
  • Consider immediate BH notification
Section 07

Medication Reference (ICEMA Ref 11010)

All medications below are from ICEMA Reference 11010 (Effective 01/01/26). Doses, routes, and BH requirements are protocol-specific.

Acetaminophen (Tylenol)IV infusion ALS
Indication
Mild–moderate pain (1–5 scale); or moderate–severe pain when other agents contraindicated/deferred
Adult Dose
1 gm IV/IO infusion over 15 min — single dose only
Pediatric Dose
2–14 yr: 15 mg/kg (max 1 gm) IV/IO over 15 min — single dose only
BH Required?
No — standing order
Contraindications
Known hepatic failure (use caution); allergy
Pearl: Use Tylenol for pain when BP is low (<100) and Fentanyl is unsafe, or when pain scale is 1–5. Only ICEMA analgesic valid for mild-moderate pain scale without BP restriction.
Trap: It's an IV infusion over 15 min — not a push. Single dose only (no repeat).
Adenosine (Adenocard) ALS
Indication
Stable narrow-complex SVT; regular monomorphic wide complex tachycardia (possible SVT with aberrancy)
Adult Dose
6 mg rapid IVP + 20 ml NS flush; if no conversion: 12 mg IVP + 20 ml NS; may repeat 12 mg ×1
Pediatric Dose
Not listed in ICEMA Ref 11010 for peds
Route
Rapid IVP (antecubital preferred) followed immediately by 20 ml NS bolus
Max Dose
Total 3 doses (6, 12, 12 mg)
BH Required?
No — standing order; contact BH after attempted conversion
Trap: CONTRAINDICATED for unstable rhythms, irregular WCT, or polymorphic WCT. Must be regular, monomorphic. Use the flush immediately — Adenosine has a half-life of ~10 seconds in blood.
Albuterol (Proventil)Neb solution + MDI BLS/LALS/ALS
Indication
Bronchospasm, asthma, COPD, anaphylaxis with bronchospasm, crush hyperkalemia (ALS only)
Adult Neb (LALS/ALS)
2.5 mg neb; may repeat ×2. Crush: 2.5 mg may repeat ×2 OR continuous 7.5 mg neb
Peds Neb (LALS/ALS)
2.5 mg neb; may repeat ×2
MDI (BLS/LALS/ALS)
4 puffs q10 min for continued SOB/wheezing (adult and peds)
BH Required?
No — standing order
Pearl: Albuterol for crush/hyperkalemia is an ALS standing order — one of the few metabolic uses. Drives K⁺ into cells.
Aspirin (chewable) LALS/ALS
Indication
Suspected AMI / ACS
Dose
325 mg PO chewed (1 adult non-enteric) OR 4 × 81 mg chewable
Route
PO — must be chewed
BH Required?
No
Trap: Only adult ACS — no pediatric indication. Must be non-enteric coated and chewed for fastest absorption. LALS scope (not just ALS).
Atropine ALS
Indication
Unstable bradycardia; organophosphate poisoning
Adult Dose — Bradycardia
1 mg IV/IO; repeat q5 min; max 3 mg (or 0.04 mg/kg)
Adult Dose — OP Poisoning
2 mg IV/IO; repeat 2 mg q5 min if symptomatic (no max stated)
Peds — OP Poisoning (<14 yr)
0.05 mg/kg IV/IO (max adult 2 mg); repeat 0.1 mg/kg q5 min if symptomatic
BH Required?
No — standing order
Trap: Atropine for bradycardia max 3 mg. Atropine for OP poisoning: no cap listed — give until secretions dry. Different indications, different max doses.
Calcium Chloride ALS
Indications
CCB poisoning (BH); cardiac arrest with suspected hypocalcemia/hyperkalemia/hypermagnesemia/CCB (BH); ESRD dialysis suspected hyperkalemia with hemodynamic instability (BH); Crush hyperkalemia (STANDING ORDER)
Adult Dose
1 gm (10 ml of 10% solution) IV/IO
Peds Dose
20 mg/kg IV/IO over 5 min (BH order only — CCB poisoning)
BH Required?
Yes — EXCEPT for crush injury with hyperkalemia (standing order)
Trap: Crush injury = standing order. All other CaCl2 indications = BH order. This is the most common test trap for this drug.
Dextrose (D10W) LALS/ALS
Adult Dose
D10W 25 gm (250 ml) IV/IO bolus; if BG <80
Peds >4 weeks Dose
D10W 0.5 gm/kg (5 ml/kg) IV/IO; if BG <60
Neonate (0–4 wks) Dose
D10W 0.5 gm/kg (5 ml/kg) IV/IO; if BG <35
BH Required?
No — standing order LALS and ALS
Trap: ICEMA uses D10W (not D50W). Adult threshold is <80 mg/dL. Pediatric >4 wk is <60 mg/dL. Neonatal is <35 mg/dL. All different thresholds — memorize by population.
EpinephrineMultiple concentrations BLS/LALS/ALS
1 mg/ml (1:1000) IM — Adult/Peds LALS/ALS
Adult: 0.3 mg IM; may repeat ×1 q15 min. Peds: 0.01 mg/kg IM (max 0.3 mg); repeat ×1 q15 min. Indication: severe bronchospasm, asthma, pending respiratory failure, severe allergic reaction
0.3 mg Auto-injector (BLS/LALS/ALS)
0.3 mg IM auto-injector; repeat ×1 q15 min. Severe asthma and/or anaphylaxis ONLY
0.15 mg Jr. Auto-injector (BLS Peds)
0.15 mg IM auto-injector — for anaphylaxis only (peds)
0.1 mg/ml (1:10,000) IV/IO — Adult Persistent Anaphylaxis
0.1 mg slow IVP/IO; repeat q5 min; max 0.5 mg. Indication: persistent severe anaphylaxis
0.1 mg/ml Cardiac Arrest — Adult
1 mg IV/IO q5 min (Asystole, PEA, VF/VT)
0.1 mg/ml Cardiac Arrest — Peds
1 day–8 yr: 0.01 mg/kg; 9–14 yr: 1.0 mg; q5 min
Push Dose Epi (0.01 mg/ml)
Mix: 9 ml NS + 1 ml Epi (0.1 mg/ml) in 10 ml syringe = 0.01 mg/ml. Adult: 1 ml IV q1–5 min titrate SBP >90. Peds: 0.1 ml/kg (max adult dose) q1–5 min titrate SBP >70
Trap: Push Dose Epi is PREPARED in the field — 9 ml NS + 1 ml of 0.1 mg/ml Epi. For post-ROSC shock, pre-arrest imminent shock (trauma), and non-traumatic shock unresponsive to fluids. This is NOT the same as cardiac arrest Epi dose.
Fentanyl ALS
Adult Indications
Chest pain (presumed ischemic); acute trauma/abdominal/flank/burn/cancer/sickle cell pain; pacing/cardioversion analgesia
Adult IV/IO Dose
50 mcg slow IV/IO over 1 min; repeat q5 min; max 200 mcg
Adult IM/IN Dose
100 mcg IM/IN; repeat 50 mcg q10 min; max 200 mcg (any combination of routes)
Peds IV/IO Dose
0.5 mcg/kg slow IV/IO over 1 min; max 50 mcg/dose; repeat q5 min
Peds IM/IN Dose
1 mcg/kg IM/IN; max 100 mcg/dose; repeat q10 min
Max Doses
Adult: 200 mcg total any combination. Peds: 4 doses OR 200 mcg cumulative total — then contact BH
BP Restriction
Use Ketamine or Tylenol if SBP <100 (Fentanyl is vasodilatory/hypotensive)
BH Required?
No until max doses; then contact BH for additional orders
Trap: Total max is 200 mcg regardless of route combination. Contact BH after max — no additional standing orders for more. Continuous ECG and capnography required.
Glucagon LALS/ALS
Adult Dose (hypoglycemia)
1 mg IM/SC/IN — if unable to establish IV. Single dose only.
Peds Dose (hypoglycemia)
0.03 mg/kg IM/IN; may repeat ×1 after 20 min; max 1 mg total
Beta Blocker Poisoning
Adult: 1 mg IV/IO (BH ORDER ONLY). Peds: 0.03 mg/kg IV/IO (BH ORDER ONLY)
BH Required?
No for hypoglycemia without IV. BH order required for beta-blocker poisoning.
Trap: Glucagon for beta-blocker poisoning is a BH order and given IV/IO. Glucagon for hypoglycemia is a standing order and given IM/IN when NO IV access.
Ipratropium Bromide (Atrovent) ALS
Indication
Used WITH Albuterol for COPD, asthma, CHF bronchospasm, anaphylaxis with bronchospasm
Adult Neb Dose
0.5 mg neb — single dose only (combined with Albuterol)
Peds Neb Dose
1 day–12 mo: 0.25 mg neb; 1–14 yr: 0.5 mg neb — single dose only
BH Required?
No — standing order (ALS)
Trap: Atrovent is ONE DOSE ONLY (not repeated like Albuterol). LALS scope does NOT include Atrovent — ALS only for nebulized solution.
Ketamine ALS — Adult ≥15 yr ONLY
Indication
Moderate–severe pain (6–10) for: acute traumatic injury, acute abdominal/flank pain, burn injuries, cancer pain, sickle cell crisis. Also indicated when SBP <100 (preferred over Fentanyl)
Adult Dose
0.3 mg/kg (max 30 mg) in 50–100 ml NS IV drip over 5 min. May repeat ×1 after 15 min if pain ≥5.
Route Restriction
IV DRIP ONLY — NOT IVP, IO, IM, or IN
Age Restriction
ADULTS ≥15 YEARS ONLY — NOT for pediatric patients
BH Required?
No — standing order
Trap: Ketamine route is IV DRIP in NS — not a push. NOT for peds. Max single dose 30 mg. Can be used when SBP <100 (Fentanyl usually avoided then). Switching from Fentanyl to Ketamine mid-treatment requires BH contact.
Lidocaine ALS
VF/Pulseless VT — Adult
1.5 mg/kg IV/IO; repeat 0.75 mg/kg q5–10 min ×1; max 3 mg/kg
V-Tach with pulse — Adult
1.5 mg/kg slow IV/IO; repeat 0.75 mg/kg; max 3 mg/kg
Cardiac Arrest — Peds
1.0 mg/kg IV/IO; repeat 0.5 mg/kg q5 min; max 3 mg/kg
IO Pain (adult + peds)
0.5 mg/kg slow IO push over 2 min; max 40 mg total
BH Required?
No — standing order
Trap: Adult initial dose for arrest/VT is 1.5 mg/kg (not 1.0 like peds). Lidocaine for IO pain relief is a separate standing order — 0.5 mg/kg IO slow push, max 40 mg.
Magnesium Sulfate ALS
Polymorphic VT (Torsades)
2 gm IV/IO bolus over 5 min if prolonged QT in sinus post-cardioversion — standing order
Eclampsia — Standing Order
4 gm IV/IO slow push over 3–4 min; then 10 mg/min IV drip
Severe Asthma (adult)
2 gm slow IV drip over 20 min; no repeat — BH ORDER ONLY
Severe Asthma (peds)
50 mg/kg slow IV over 20 min; max 2 gm — BH ORDER ONLY
BH Required?
NO for eclampsia/Torsades (standing orders). YES for severe asthma (BH order).
Trap: Eclampsia = standing order (4 gm bolus + drip). Asthma = BH order only (2 gm over 20 min). Different doses, different authorization levels. Do NOT confuse.
Midazolam (Versed) ALS
Seizure — Adult
2.5 mg IV/IO q5 min; OR 5 mg IM/IN q10 min; max 3 doses any combination
Behavioral Agitation — Adult
2.5 mg IV/IO q5 min; OR 5 mg IM/IN q10 min (prefer IM/IN — don't delay for IV); max 3 doses
CPAP Anxiety — Adult
1 mg IV/IO/IM/IN — single dose; contact BH for more. Only if SBP >90
Pacing/Cardioversion Sedation
2.5 mg slow IV/IO q5 min; OR 5 mg IM/IN q10 min; max 3 doses
Post-Intubation Agitation
2.5 mg IV/IO OR 5 mg IM/IN — BH ORDER; patient must have advanced airway
Seizure — Peds
0.1 mg/kg IV/IO (max 2.5 mg); repeat q5 min. OR 0.2 mg/kg IM/IN (max 5 mg); repeat q10 min; max 3 doses
Peds Behavioral (>9 yr)
Same doses as peds seizure
Peds <9 yr
BH ORDER ONLY for behavioral
BH Required?
No for seizure/behavioral/cardioversion up to 3 doses; Yes for post-intubation agitation; Yes for <9 yr behavioral; Yes for additional doses beyond 3
Trap: Capnography REQUIRED after each Midazolam dose (behavioral). For behavioral, IM/IN preferred — do NOT delay for IV. After 3 doses for seizure OR behavioral: CONTACT BH for additional orders.
Naloxone (Narcan) BLS/LALS/ALS
Adult Standard Dose
0.5 mg IV/IO/IM/IN q2–3 min PRN respiratory depression
Suspected Fentanyl OD — Adult
Consider loading dose 4 mg IN; may repeat ×1; then 0.5 mg q2–3 min if no improvement
Max Dose (all routes)
10 mg total — regardless of route
Peds — BLS/LALS
1 day–8 yr: 0.1 mg/kg IM/IN (max 0.5 mg/dose); 9–14 yr: 0.5 mg IM/IN; repeat q2–3 min; max 10 mg total
Peds — ALS
Same but can use IV/IO routes also
BH Required?
No — BLS standing order (unique)
Trap: Naloxone is a BLS drug in ICEMA (rare). Max 10 mg total regardless of route. For fentanyl: 4 mg IN loading dose is specific to ICEMA (not generic teaching).
Nitroglycerin (NTG) LALS/ALS
Indication
ACS chest pain; acute pulmonary edema/CHF (SBP >100)
SL/Transmucosal Dose
0.4 mg SL q3 min; may repeat as long as adequate perfusion
NTG Paste
1 inch (1 gm) transdermal — single dose only; use when SL cannot easily be administered (e.g., CPAP)
Contraindications
Signs of inadequate perfusion; RVI; PDE5 inhibitors within 48 hr (sildenafil/Viagra, tadalafil/Cialis, vardenafil/Levitra); SBP <100 for CHF use
BH Required?
No (standing order); BH contact recommended if RVI suspected before giving
Trap: RVI = hold NTG and give fluids. SBP <100 in CHF/APE = hold NTG. PDE5 inhibitor within 48 hr = hold NTG. Three separate contraindication categories.
Ondansetron (Zofran) ALS — Age ≥4 yr
Indication
Nausea/vomiting; prophylactic for narcotic-induced N/V
Dose
4 mg slow IV/IO or ODT (orally dissolving tablet)
4–8 yr max before BH
Total of 4 mg (one dose) before BH contact
≥9 yr / adult max before BH
4 mg; repeat ×2 at 10 min intervals; max 12 mg before BH contact
Contraindications
Under 4 yr; known sensitivity to 5-HT3 antagonists
BH Required?
No for initial doses; Yes after maximum pre-BH doses
Trap: Not indicated under 4 years. The 4–8 yr age group is more restricted (only 4 mg before BH contact vs. 12 mg for ≥9 yr).
Sodium Bicarbonate ALS
TCA Poisoning
1 mEq/kg IV/IO — BH ORDER
Cardiac Arrest (metabolic acidosis/hyperkalemia/TCA)
50 mEq IV/IO — BH ORDER
Crush Injury Hyperkalemia
50 mEq IV/IO — STANDING ORDER
BH Required?
Yes — EXCEPT crush injury (standing order)
Trap: Like Calcium Chloride — crush injury is the only standing order indication. All other bicarb uses are BH orders.
Tranexamic Acid (TXA)Patients ≥15 yr ALS
Trauma Indication (Standing Order)
Within 3 hr of injury; SBP <90 OR HR ≥120 OR uncontrolled bleeding
PPH Indication
Postpartum hemorrhagic shock — BH ORDER ONLY; within 3 hr of onset
Dose IV/IO
2 gm slow IV/IO over 1 min
Dose IM
1 gm as 2 × 5 ml IM injections
Age Restriction
≥15 years; pediatric TXA NOT indicated in ICEMA
BH Required?
No for qualifying trauma; Yes for PPH
Buprenorphine-Naloxone (Suboxone) ALS
Indication
Opioid withdrawal — Clinical Opioid Withdrawal Scale (COWS) ≥8
Initial Dose
16 mg/4 mg sublingual
Repeat Dose
8 mg/2 mg SL after 10 min if still symptomatic
Max Dose
24 mg/6 mg total
BH Required?
No — standing order (unique ICEMA program)
Trap: Only for opioid WITHDRAWAL (COWS ≥8) — NOT for opioid overdose. This is an ICEMA-specific program under Ref 10050.
Section 08

Protocol Decision Trees

Chest Pain / Suspected AMI
Scene safety → Position of comfort → SpO₂ on room air → O₂ if SpO₂ <94%
Aspirin 325 mg PO chewed (LALS/ALS standing order)
IV access. If poor perfusion + clear lungs: 300 ml NS bolus
NTG 0.4 mg SL q3 min — Contraindicated if: poor perfusion, RVI, PDE5 inhibitors within 48 hr
12-lead ECG (ALS). Inferior wall? → Obtain V4R for RVI assessment
If RVI suspected: Hold NTG → give 300 ml NS bolus → early BH consultation
Fentanyl 50 mcg slow IV/IO over 1 min for pain ≥6 (with SBP >100). May repeat q5 min; max 200 mcg
If STEMI on ECG (ST elevation ≥2 contiguous leads): Notify STEMI Receiving Center; expeditious transport
Transport to STEMI Receiving Center. Repeat 12-lead en route; do not disconnect cables
Respiratory Distress (Adult)
Assess: COPD? Asthma? CHF/APE? Anaphylaxis? SpO₂ on room air or home O2
COPD target: SpO₂ 90% (max 91%). All others: SpO₂ 94% (max 95%)
Albuterol 2.5 mg neb × up to 3 doses (LALS/ALS)
ALS: Add Atrovent 0.5 mg neb (single dose) with Albuterol for COPD/asthma/CHF
ALS: Apply CPAP (start lowest setting; max 15 cm H₂O). If SBP >90 and anxiety: Midazolam 1 mg × 1
Anaphylaxis/severe asthma unresponsive to Albuterol: Epi 0.3 mg IM (1:1000); repeat ×1 q15 min
Persistent severe anaphylaxis (ALS): Epi 0.1 mg slow IVP (1:10,000); repeat q5 min; max 0.5 mg; Diphenhydramine
Asthma unresponsive to all above: BH order → MgSO4 2 gm IV drip over 20 min
Consider advanced airway if all measures fail
Anaphylaxis
Remove from allergen. ABCs. O₂. IV access.
BLS: Epi 0.3 mg auto-injector IM; may repeat ×1 after 15 min
LALS/ALS: Albuterol 2.5 mg neb; if no response → Epi 0.3 mg IM (1:1000)
ALS: Diphenhydramine 25 mg IV/IO or 50 mg IM; IV bolus 300 ml NS if poor perfusion
Anaphylactic shock (no radial pulse + depressed LOC): Epi 0.1 mg slow IVP (1:10,000); repeat q5 min; max 0.5 mg
Advanced airway if indicated; CPAP after BH consult for inhalation burn patients
Altered Mental Status (Adult)
ABCs. SpO₂. O₂ as indicated. Obtain blood glucose.
BG <80: Oral glucose if gag intact → If no improvement or no gag: D10W 25 gm IV/IO bolus → If no IV: Glucagon 1 mg IM/IN
Consider: suspected opioid OD? → Naloxone 0.5 mg IV/IO/IM/IN q2–3 min if respiratory depression
Suspected Fentanyl OD: Consider 4 mg IN loading dose first
Left lateral position if altered gag (no trauma). Spinal motion restriction if indicated (NSAID)
12-lead ECG (ALS). Consider CO poisoning if combustion exposure → 100% O₂ NRB
Active seizure? → Midazolam 2.5 mg IV/IO (or 5 mg IM/IN); may repeat; max 3 doses
Hypoglycemia
Assess blood glucose. Adult: treat if BG <80. Peds >4 wk: treat if BG <60. Neonate: treat if BG <35.
Intact gag reflex? → Oral Glucose 1 tube → reassess BG
IV/IO access available? → D10W 25 gm (250 ml) IV/IO bolus (adult); peds: D10W 0.5 gm/kg (5 ml/kg)
No IV/IO and no gag? → Glucagon 1 mg IM/SC/IN (adult, single dose); peds: 0.03 mg/kg IM/IN
Reassess BG after treatment; repeat Dextrose if BG remains low; document response
Narcotic Overdose / Respiratory Depression
Scene safety. ABCs. Assisted ventilation with BVM if inadequate respirations.
Suspected standard opioid OD: Naloxone 0.5 mg IM/IN (BLS standing order). Repeat q2–3 min to adequate respiratory effort.
Suspected FENTANYL OD: Consider Naloxone 4 mg IN loading dose; may repeat ×1; then 0.5 mg q2–3 min PRN
ALS: IV/IO access. Naloxone 0.5 mg IV/IO/IM/IN same dosing; max 10 mg TOTAL all routes
Goal: adequate respiratory effort — NOT full reversal (avoid acute withdrawal, combative patient)
Blood glucose check; advanced airway if BVM inadequate; transport; document Naloxone administration
Seizures (Adult)
Protect from injury. Airway management. O₂. Left lateral position. Blood glucose.
BG <80: Oral glucose if gag intact → D10W 25 gm IV/IO → Glucagon 1 mg IM if no IV
Active seizure, ALS: Midazolam 2.5 mg IV/IO (or 5 mg IM/IN preferred if no IV). Assess respiratory rate and BP.
May repeat: IV/IO q5 min; IM/IN q10 min. Max 3 doses total any combination → Contact BH after 3 doses.
If Midazolam unavailable: Diazepam 5 mg IV/IO or 10 mg IM — single dose only
Monitor capnography and SpO₂. 12-lead ECG. Transport. Document all medications and responses.
Stroke (Adult)
SpO₂ on room air. O₂ if <94%. Blood glucose (mLAPSS criterion: BG must be 60–400).
Perform mLAPSS: Age >17, no seizure hx, new neuro Sx in <24 hr, ambulatory at baseline, BG 60–400, + unilateral weakness on exam?
mLAPSS negative + still suspect stroke: Consult BH for destination
mLAPSS positive → Perform LAMS: Face + Arm + Grip. Score ≥4 = consider LVO.
Determine "last seen normal" time. Document family phone number. Bring patient's cell phone.
Last seen normal + transport time <24 hr OR wake-up stroke: Closest Stroke Receiving Center
Last seen normal >24 hr: Closest receiving hospital
12-lead ECG (ALS). Thrombolytic assessment if time allows. Notify stroke team early.
Unstable Bradycardia (Adult)
Confirm HR <60 + signs of inadequate perfusion / ALOC / ischemic chest pain. O₂. IV access.
IV bolus 300 ml NS
12-lead ECG to define rhythm. Atropine 1 mg IV/IO; repeat q5 min; max 3 mg.
If documented MI, 3rd-degree AVB with wide complex, or 2nd-degree Type II: Go directly to TCP (Atropine may not work)
Atropine ineffective? → Transcutaneous Pacing (TCP): Rate 60; lowest mA for capture; Fentanyl + Midazolam for comfort
Increase rate up to 100 max to maintain perfusion. Contact BH if rhythm persists or inadequate perfusion continues.
ESRD + hyperkalemia suspected: BH order → CaCl2 1 gm IV/IO
SVT (Narrow Complex Tachycardia, Adult)
HR >150, narrow complex, stable. O₂. IV access. 12-lead ECG. NS 300 ml bolus.
Vagal maneuvers (Valsalva). Hold if hypertension, suspected STEMI, or head injury.
Adenosine 6 mg rapid IVP + 20 ml NS flush immediately after.
No conversion? → Adenosine 12 mg rapid IVP + 20 ml NS flush. May repeat 12 mg ×1 more.
Still no conversion? → Synchronized cardioversion 100J → 200J → 300J → 360J. Sedate with Midazolam + Fentanyl first.
Contact base hospital.
Adult Cardiac Arrest (Non-Traumatic)
Begin HP-CPR immediately. Apply AED/monitor without interrupting compressions. IV/IO access.
Determine rhythm. VF/Pulseless VT: Defibrillate 360J (or biphasic equivalent) → immediately resume CPR × 2 min.
PEA/Asystole: Assess reversible causes (Hs and Ts). Fluid bolus 300 ml NS. Continue CPR.
Epinephrine 1 mg IV/IO q5 min (no CPR interruption). Capnography continuously — document waveform + value.
After 2 HP-CPR cycles: Lidocaine 1.5 mg/kg IV/IO for VF/VT; may repeat 0.75 mg/kg; max 3 mg/kg.
After 20 min pulseless VF/VT: Consult BH. Consider TOR if criteria met (ETCO₂ <15 after 20 min + no ROSC + qualifying criterion).
ROSC: 12-lead → transport to STEMI Receiving Center. ETCO₂ target 35–45. Push Dose Epi if SBP <90.
Major Trauma
Scene safety. Initial assessment: ABCs. Control life-threatening hemorrhage (direct pressure → tourniquet).
Spinal motion restriction? → Use NSAID. Penetrating trauma without NSAID criteria = NO SMR.
Trauma triage criteria? → Transport to closest Trauma Center. Notify TC to activate trauma team ASAP.
IV/IO access. Fluid strategy by injury type: Blunt unstable → 250 ml NS × max 500 ml. Penetrating → saline lock only.
Head injury: Elevate HOB 15–20° if no shock. Saline lock if stable. Avoid hypoxia/hyperventilation.
Chest wound: Occlusive dressing. Monitor for tension PTX. Needle thoracostomy if criteria met (5th ICS MAL preferred).
TXA (≥15 yr, within 3 hr, SBP <90 OR HR ≥120 OR uncontrolled bleed): 2 gm slow IV/IO over 1 min OR 1 gm IM × 2.
Pain management: Fentanyl (SBP >100) or Ketamine (any BP, ≥15 yr); Acetaminophen (mild–moderate). Ondansetron PRN.
Pediatric Respiratory Distress
PAT: Appearance, Work of Breathing, Circulation. O₂ humidified. Assess SpO₂ on room air if possible.
LALS/ALS: Albuterol 2.5 mg neb; may repeat ×2. IV access TKO.
No response to Albuterol → Epi 0.01 mg/kg IM (1:1000); max 0.3 mg; repeat ×1 q15 min.
ALS: Add Atrovent neb (0.25 mg <12 mo; 0.5 mg 1–14 yr, single dose).
No response to all above → Contact BH. BH may order MgSO4 50 mg/kg slow IV (max 2 gm) over 20 min.
Advanced airway only if taller than Broselow tape max. Consider transport to closest receiving hospital for airway management.
Section 09

Practice Test — 100 Questions

Instructions
Click Show Answer & Explanation after selecting your answer to reveal the correct response and detailed rationale. Answers and explanations are in Section 10 below.
Question 1 MedicalPharmacology
A 58-year-old male presents with crushing chest pain, diaphoresis, and nausea. His SpO₂ is 97% on room air. The 12-lead shows ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. His BP is 80/50 mmHg. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next action?
  • Administer Nitroglycerin 0.4 mg SL and transport to the STEMI Receiving Center
  • Administer a 300 ml NS bolus, obtain right-sided 12-lead (V4R), and hold NTG
  • Administer Fentanyl 50 mcg IV for pain and then give NTG
  • Administer NTG 1 inch paste and transport code 3
Question 2 Pharmacology
Per ICEMA protocol, what is the correct dose and route of Ketamine for moderate-to-severe pain in an adult patient with a BP of 88/60?
  • 0.3 mg/kg IV push over 60 seconds
  • 0.3 mg/kg (max 30 mg) in 50–100 ml NS IV drip over 5 minutes
  • 0.3 mg/kg IM or IN — no IV required
  • Ketamine is contraindicated when SBP is less than 90
Question 3 Medical
You are treating a 72-year-old female with a history of COPD who is in moderate respiratory distress. Her SpO₂ on room air is 88%. After Albuterol, you apply oxygen. What is your SpO₂ target for this patient?
  • 94% — titrate to maintain and do not exceed 95%
  • 90% — titrate to maintain and do not exceed 91%
  • 100% via non-rebreather mask
  • 98–100% because she is in moderate distress
Question 4 Trauma
You respond to a gunshot wound to the right thigh with massive hemorrhage. The patient is alert, BP 74/40, HR 138. Direct pressure has failed to control bleeding. After tourniquet placement, what is your fluid resuscitation strategy per ICEMA protocol?
  • Saline lock only — do not administer IV fluids for penetrating trauma
  • 250 ml NS bolus; may repeat once for a max of 500 ml
  • 1000 ml NS wide open to restore BP to 120 systolic
  • 500 ml NS bolus; may repeat once for a max of 1000 ml
Question 5 Pharmacology
An adult patient in SVT with a BP of 110/70 does not convert with vagal maneuvers. You administer Adenosine 6 mg rapid IVP with a 20 ml NS flush. There is no conversion. What is your next step per ICEMA protocol?
  • Synchronized cardioversion at 100 joules immediately
  • Adenosine 12 mg rapid IVP with 20 ml NS flush
  • Lidocaine 1.5 mg/kg slow IV push
  • Contact base hospital before any additional treatment
Question 6 Pediatric
A 6-year-old (20 kg) in status epilepticus requires Midazolam. You have IV access. What is the correct ICEMA dose?
  • 5 mg IV push — adult dose applies at this weight
  • 2 mg IV/IO (0.1 mg/kg with a max of 2.5 mg per dose)
  • 0.1 mg/kg = 2 mg IV/IO; max dose per administration is 2.5 mg
  • 0.2 mg/kg = 4 mg IV/IO since IM dose is higher
Question 7 Trauma
Per ICEMA protocol, which of the following patients with penetrating trauma is a candidate for spinal motion restriction?
  • A patient with a gunshot wound to the back who is ambulatory and has no neurological deficits, no tenderness, and is alert and sober
  • A patient with a stab wound to the flank who has a distracting femur fracture
  • A patient with a GSW to the abdomen who has decreased sensation in both lower extremities
  • All penetrating trauma patients require cervical collar placement
Question 8 Medical
You perform the mLAPSS stroke screen on a 65-year-old patient. The patient is age 65, has no seizure history, new right-sided facial droop starting 2 hours ago, was ambulatory prior to the event, and blood glucose is 110 mg/dL. The LAMS score is 3. What is the correct destination?
  • Closest receiving hospital since LAMS <4 rules out LVO
  • Closest Stroke Receiving Center — mLAPSS positive and last seen normal within 24 hours
  • Contact base hospital for destination since LAMS <4
  • Closest receiving hospital since LAMS score <4 means the stroke is not eligible for intervention
Question 9 Pharmacology
A patient presents with suspected organophosphate poisoning with SLUDGE symptoms, wheezing, and bronchospasm. Which of the following is the correct ICEMA standing order treatment sequence?
  • Atropine 1 mg IV/IO (bradycardia dose); contact base hospital before giving more
  • Atropine 2 mg IV/IO; repeat 2 mg q5 min if symptoms persist; Midazolam if seizures
  • Atropine 0.5 mg IV/IO — use lower doses to avoid toxicity
  • Contact base hospital before administering any Atropine
Question 10 Medical
A 45-year-old has been in cardiac arrest for 22 minutes. You have maintained HP-CPR with ALS interventions. The ETCO₂ waveform has been reading 10–12 mmHg throughout. No shocks have been delivered. The patient was not witnessed to arrest by EMS. The cardiac rhythm is a slow PEA at 28 bpm. What action is indicated per ICEMA protocol?
  • Contact base hospital before terminating resuscitation
  • All criteria for field termination are met — terminate resuscitation without base hospital contact
  • Transport immediately to STEMI Receiving Center
  • Continue CPR for another 20 minutes before considering termination
Question 11 Pediatric
A 4-year-old (16 kg) presents in cardiac arrest. You defibrillate at 2 j/kg (32J). There is no ROSC. What is the correct energy level for the SECOND defibrillation attempt per ICEMA protocol?
  • 4 j/kg (64J)
  • 2 j/kg again (32J) — repeat same energy
  • 360J — use adult maximum dose
  • 10 j/kg (160J)
Question 12 OB/Neonatal
You deliver a neonate who is limp, not breathing, and has a heart rate of 40 bpm despite positive pressure ventilation with 100% O₂ for one minute. Per ICEMA protocol, after addressing airway for hypoxia and temperature for hypothermia, what medication is indicated?
  • Atropine 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO
  • Epinephrine (0.1 mg/ml) 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO
  • Dextrose D10W 0.5 gm/kg IV/IO
  • Begin CPR only — no medications are indicated in neonates
Question 13 Trauma
A 32-year-old male was involved in a high-speed motorcycle crash (60+ mph). He is ambulatory at the scene, GCS 15, and reporting right leg pain. Vitals: BP 128/80, HR 94, SpO₂ 99%. There is no obvious deformity. Per ICEMA trauma triage criteria, what determines if he requires transport to a Trauma Center?
  • Physiologic and anatomic criteria alone — he does not meet them, so nearest hospital is appropriate
  • Motorcycle crash >20 mph meets mechanism criteria — contact trauma base hospital for destination consultation
  • He must go to a Trauma Center because his mechanism alone mandates it
  • He should be transported to the nearest facility without base hospital contact since he is stable
Question 14 Pharmacology
You are treating a 70-year-old dialysis patient with bradycardia (HR 28), hypotension, and wide QRS on the monitor. Atropine 3 mg IV has failed. You initiate transcutaneous pacing. Which base hospital order would ALSO be appropriate for this patient?
  • Magnesium Sulfate 2 gm IV
  • Sodium Bicarbonate 50 mEq IV
  • Calcium Chloride 1 gm IV/IO
  • Adenosine 6 mg rapid IVP
Question 15 Medical
A 28-year-old female (26 weeks pregnant) develops tonic-clonic seizures. Her BP was 170/110 on scene. What is the correct ALS standing order treatment?
  • Midazolam 5 mg IM only — Magnesium Sulfate requires a base hospital order for seizures in pregnancy
  • Magnesium Sulfate 4 gm IV/IO slow push over 3–4 min; then 10 mg/min IV drip; AND Midazolam per seizure protocol
  • Magnesium Sulfate 2 gm IV over 5 min — same as Torsades dose
  • Contact base hospital before administering any medications for seizures in pregnancy
Question 16 Pharmacology
A patient presents with a suspected fentanyl overdose and agonal respirations. You are a BLS provider. What is the correct ICEMA Naloxone approach?
  • BLS cannot administer Naloxone — wait for ALS
  • Consider loading dose 4 mg IN; may repeat ×1; then 0.5 mg IM/IN q2–3 min PRN; max 10 mg total
  • 0.5 mg IM only — intranasal is ALS scope
  • Administer 2 mg IN and reassess — higher loading dose is ALS scope only
Question 17 Trauma
A 22-year-old patient was entrapped in a vehicle fire for 45 minutes and sustained burns to 25% TBSA, full-thickness involvement of the face and hands, with singed nasal hairs and a hoarse voice. What is the correct destination per ICEMA?
  • Closest Burn Center (ARMC in San Bernardino County)
  • Closest receiving hospital for airway stabilization — transport to burn center after stabilization
  • Closest Trauma Center because of associated trauma
  • Closest receiving hospital because CPAP is contraindicated pre-hospital
Question 18 Pharmacology
You have administered Fentanyl 50 mcg IV twice and your adult patient with a fractured femur still has a pain score of 8/10. His BP is 96/60. What is the most appropriate next analgesic step per ICEMA?
  • Administer a third dose of Fentanyl 50 mcg IV — you haven't reached the max
  • Administer Ketamine 0.3 mg/kg (max 30 mg) in NS IV drip over 5 minutes
  • Contact base hospital to switch from Fentanyl to Ketamine
  • Administer Acetaminophen 1 gm IV over 15 minutes as Fentanyl is contraindicated with low BP
Question 19 Medical
An adult patient presents with suspected sepsis: temp 103.2°F, HR 112, RR 24, and EtCO₂ of 22 mmHg. BP is 118/74. Which finding specifically satisfies the ICEMA sepsis criteria?
  • BP 118/74 — borderline hypotension suggests septic shock
  • HR 112, RR 24, temp >100.4°F, and EtCO₂ <25 mmHg — all four ICEMA criteria are met
  • Only three criteria are needed — this patient has two (HR and RR), which is sufficient
  • EtCO₂ is not part of the ICEMA sepsis criteria
Question 20 Destination
You achieve ROSC in a 55-year-old male following a witnessed cardiac arrest. The 12-lead shows only nonspecific ST changes — no clear STEMI pattern. The closest STEMI Receiving Center is 18 minutes away; the closest receiving hospital is 6 minutes away. Where do you transport per ICEMA?
  • Closest receiving hospital — no STEMI means no need to bypass
  • Closest STEMI Receiving Center — ROSC of suspected cardiac etiology goes to STEMI center regardless of ECG findings
  • Contact base hospital to determine destination
  • Closest Trauma Center — cardiac arrest qualifies as major trauma
Question 21 PediatricPharmacology
A 3-year-old (15 kg) presents with anaphylaxis after a bee sting — hives, stridor, and a BP of 60/40. You are BLS. What is the appropriate intervention?
  • Administer Epinephrine 0.3 mg auto-injector IM
  • Administer Epinephrine 0.15 mg Jr. auto-injector IM for anaphylaxis only
  • BLS cannot administer epinephrine — request ALS intercept
  • Administer Diphenhydramine and request ALS intercept
Question 22 Trauma
A 35-year-old male was stabbed in the left chest. He is hypotensive (SBP 70), with absent breath sounds on the left, distended neck veins, and increased ventilatory resistance. What is the correct ICEMA intervention?
  • Two large-bore IVs and 1000 ml NS wide open; transport to Trauma Center
  • Needle thoracostomy at the 2nd ICS midclavicular line on the left
  • Needle thoracostomy at the 5th ICS midaxillary line on the left (preferred ICEMA site)
  • Occlusive dressing over the wound site and reassess
Question 23 Pharmacology
Which of the following Calcium Chloride indications is a STANDING ORDER (no base hospital contact required) per ICEMA Ref 11010?
  • Cardiac arrest with suspected hypocalcemia
  • Calcium channel blocker poisoning with persistent hypotension
  • Crush injury with prolonged entrapment and abnormal ECG findings (suspected hyperkalemia)
  • ESRD dialysis patient with sinus bradycardia and suspected hyperkalemia
Question 24 OB/Neonatal
You deliver a newborn who appears blue, has a heart rate of 85, weak flexion tone, no respiratory effort, and has a grimace when stimulated. What is the APGAR score at one minute?
  • 3
  • 4
  • 5
  • 6
Question 25 Medical
During a behavioral emergency, you administer Midazolam 5 mg IM to a combative patient. Which monitoring intervention is REQUIRED per ICEMA protocol immediately after administration?
  • 12-lead ECG
  • Blood glucose check
  • Capnography — monitor waveform and numerical value
  • SpO₂ only — capnography is not indicated for IM medications
Question 26 Pediatric
A 10-year-old patient who is taller than the maximum length of a Broselow tape requires intubation after BVM failure. Which statement is correct per ICEMA Ref 11020?
  • Oral ETI is permitted for this patient; if unsuccessful after 3 attempts, use SGA as backup
  • Oral ETI is not allowed for pediatric patients — SGA must be used first
  • Oral ETI is permitted — if unsuccessful after 3 attempts, continue BVM and transport
  • Nasotracheal intubation is the preferred method for pediatric patients over 10
Question 27 Pharmacology
An adult patient has taken 40 mg of verapamil (a calcium channel blocker) with persistent BP of 60/40 and a slow junctional rhythm. What is the treatment per ICEMA?
  • Atropine 1 mg IV/IO — standing order for bradycardia
  • Contact base hospital — Calcium Chloride 1 gm IV/IO is required but only as a base hospital order for CCB poisoning
  • Glucagon 1 mg IV/IO — standing order for beta-blocker poisoning also covers CCB
  • Adenosine 6 mg IVP to break the junctional rhythm
Question 28 Medical
A 22-year-old patient presents with new-onset tonic-clonic seizure activity. He has no IV access. You have given Midazolam 5 mg IM and the seizure continues after 10 minutes. What is the correct next step?
  • Give Diazepam 10 mg IM as a second agent
  • Repeat Midazolam 5 mg IM — you may give up to 3 total doses
  • Contact base hospital immediately — you've reached the maximum standing order doses
  • Establish IO access and give Midazolam 2.5 mg IV/IO
Question 29 DestinationTrauma
A 7-year-old was struck by a car. She is GCS 10, BP 70/40, and has an open femur fracture. The closest Pediatric Trauma Center is 35 minutes away; the closest adult Trauma Center is 18 minutes away. What is the correct destination?
  • Pediatric Trauma Center — all pediatric trauma must go to a pediatric center
  • Closest adult Trauma Center — the 20-minute transport difference rule means peds TC is not preferred here
  • Closest receiving hospital for stabilization
  • Contact base hospital for destination — no specific rule applies
Question 30 Pharmacology
What is the ICEMA blood glucose threshold for treating hypoglycemia in a neonate (0–4 weeks)?
  • <80 mg/dL — same as adults
  • <60 mg/dL — same as pediatric patients
  • <35 mg/dL
  • <50 mg/dL
Question 31 Medical
For a stable bradycardia patient (HR 48, BP 112/70, no symptoms), what is the ALS standing order per ICEMA?
  • Atropine 1 mg IV/IO immediately
  • Observe; IV access; 300 ml NS bolus if lungs clear; monitor for changes
  • Transcutaneous pacing as a precaution
  • Contact base hospital before any treatment
Question 32 Pharmacology
A 17-year-old (65 kg) trauma patient meets TXA criteria within 2 hours of injury (SBP 82, HR 130). What is the correct TXA dose and route per ICEMA?
  • 1 gm IV over 10 minutes — half the adult dose for a 17-year-old
  • 2 gm slow IV/IO over 1 minute OR 1 gm as 2 × 5 ml IM injections — full adult dose, age ≥15 qualifies
  • Pediatric TXA is not indicated — contact base hospital for orders
  • 1 gm IV/IO over 1 minute — half dose for patients under 18
Question 33 Medical
You are treating a patient for CHF/APE who is in moderate distress. BP is 148/90. You apply CPAP. The patient becomes anxious. What medication can you administer as an ICEMA standing order?
  • Midazolam 2.5 mg IV/IO for anxiety
  • Midazolam 1 mg IV/IO/IM/IN — single dose for CPAP-related anxiety with SBP >90
  • Fentanyl 50 mcg IV for anxiety/discomfort
  • No sedation is permitted with CPAP without a base hospital order
Question 34 Pediatric
A 2-year-old presents with suspected opioid overdose and agonal breathing. You are BLS. What is the correct Naloxone dose?
  • 0.5 mg IM/IN — same as adult
  • 0.1 mg/kg IM/IN (max 0.5 mg per dose); repeat q2–3 min PRN; max 10 mg total
  • 0.4 mg IN loading dose
  • BLS cannot administer Naloxone to pediatric patients
Question 35 OB/Neonatal
You deliver a baby in breech presentation and the body delivers but the head is not delivered after 4 minutes. What is the correct ICEMA response?
  • Apply fundal pressure to assist delivery of the head
  • Administer O₂ to the mother, place in Trendelenburg, and transport Code 3 to the closest appropriate facility
  • Attempt to rotate the baby to deliver the head on scene
  • Double clamp and cut the cord to allow delivery of the remainder of the baby
Question 36 Pharmacology
An adult patient with a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) overdose presents with a wide QRS (QRS 160 ms), hypotension, and altered LOC. Which of the following is MOST correct per ICEMA?
  • Sodium Bicarbonate 1 mEq/kg IV/IO — standing order for TCA poisoning
  • Contact base hospital — Sodium Bicarbonate for TCA poisoning is a base hospital order
  • Calcium Chloride 1 gm IV — standing order because TCA causes hypocalcemia
  • Lidocaine 1.5 mg/kg IV for wide complex
Question 37 Trauma
A patient sustained a penetrating GSW to the abdomen. Bowel is eviscerated through the wound. What is the correct field management per ICEMA?
  • Gently replace the bowel into the abdominal cavity and apply a dry dressing
  • Cover eviscerated organs with saline-dampened gauze; do NOT attempt to replace
  • Apply a dry occlusive dressing over the wound and eviscerated organs
  • Irrigate with NS and cover with a dry sterile dressing
Question 38 Medical
A patient presents with polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (Torsades de Pointes) with a pulse. Which intervention is FIRST per ICEMA protocol?
  • Synchronized cardioversion at 100J followed by Magnesium Sulfate 2 gm IV
  • Lidocaine 1.5 mg/kg IV/IO
  • Immediate unsynchronized cardioversion (defibrillation)
  • Adenosine 6 mg IVP to break the re-entry circuit
Question 39 PediatricPharmacology
A 10-year-old (30 kg) is in cardiac arrest with VF. After the first defibrillation at 2 j/kg, VF persists. What medication and dose should be administered per ICEMA?
  • Epinephrine 1 mg IV/IO — adult dose
  • Epinephrine (0.1 mg/ml) 0.01 mg/kg = 0.3 mg IV/IO (do not exceed adult dose)
  • Epinephrine (0.1 mg/ml) 1.0 mg IV/IO — 9-14 year dose
  • Atropine 0.02 mg/kg IV/IO first
Question 40 Destination
A psychiatric patient on a 5150 hold presents with chest pain. Which destination is correct per ICEMA?
  • Behavioral health facility — he is on a 5150 hold
  • Closest acute care hospital for medical evaluation and clearance — all 5150 patients with a medical complaint require medical evaluation first
  • STEMI Receiving Center if chest pain is present
  • Law enforcement can transport him directly to behavioral health since he has a hold
Question 41 Pharmacology
An adult patient with severe asthma has failed Albuterol 3×, Atrovent, and Epinephrine. You contact base hospital and receive an order for Magnesium Sulfate. What is the correct dose and administration?
  • 4 gm IV push over 3–4 minutes (eclampsia dose)
  • 2 gm slow IV drip over 20 minutes — do not repeat
  • 2 gm IV bolus over 5 minutes — same as Torsades
  • 1 gm IV over 10 minutes; may repeat once
Question 42 Medical
Per ICEMA capnography protocol, in which situation is capnography REQUIRED (not just recommended)?
  • All cardiac arrest patients — capnography is mandatory
  • STEMI patients only
  • Only when advanced airway is placed
  • Only when Midazolam is given IV
Question 43 Trauma
A 68-year-old on warfarin fell from standing and hit his head. GCS is 15, no focal neuro deficits, vitals normal. Does he require trauma triage to a Trauma Center per ICEMA?
  • No — he meets no physiologic or anatomic criteria
  • Yes — automatically goes to Trauma Center due to age >65 on anticoagulants
  • Contact trauma base hospital for destination consultation — age >65 on anticoagulants is an age/co-morbid factor requiring BH input
  • Transport to closest receiving hospital — age criteria only apply if physiologic criteria are present
Question 44 Pharmacology
What is the ICEMA maximum total Naloxone dose regardless of route?
  • 4 mg IN (loading dose)
  • 2 mg total
  • 10 mg total
  • There is no maximum — continue until adequate respiratory effort is achieved
Question 45 OB/Neonatal
A postpartum patient has significant hemorrhage. Her BP is 84/50 and HR is 128. IV fluids have been initiated. Which ICEMA intervention requires BASE HOSPITAL CONTACT?
  • 500 ml NS bolus
  • Second large-bore IV access
  • TXA 2 gm slow IV/IO
  • Fundal massage
Question 46 Medical
A patient has a suspected stroke. The mLAPSS screen is negative but you still clinically suspect a stroke. What do you do per ICEMA protocol?
  • Transport to closest receiving hospital — mLAPSS negative rules out stroke center need
  • Consult base hospital for destination
  • Re-screen using LAMS score
  • Transport to Trauma Center for neurosurgical evaluation
Question 47 Pediatric
An 8-year-old in cardiac arrest needs IO access. Which IO sites are approved for this patient per ICEMA Ref 11020?
  • Proximal tibia only
  • Proximal tibia, distal tibia, and humeral head
  • Proximal tibia only — 8-year-old is in the "8 years and under" category (LALS/ALS)
  • All sites including anterior distal femur as a standing order
Question 48 Pharmacology
An adult patient with NTG-responsive chest pain states he took sildenafil (Viagra) 36 hours ago. Per ICEMA protocol, is NTG contraindicated?
  • No — the contraindication window is 24 hours, and it has passed
  • Yes — ICEMA's contraindication window is 48 hours for sexual enhancement medications
  • No — sildenafil's effect on NTG is only significant within 12 hours
  • Only contraindicated if patient is symptomatic from sildenafil
Question 49 Trauma
A 17-year-old sustained a closed head injury in a car crash. He is GCS 12, BP 96/60. What is the correct IV fluid strategy per ICEMA?
  • Saline lock only — all head injuries are treated like penetrating trauma (no fluids)
  • 250 ml NS bolus IV/IO; may repeat once; max 500 ml total
  • 1000 ml NS wide open to maintain cerebral perfusion pressure
  • 500 ml NS bolus; may repeat once (crush injury protocol)
Question 50 Medical
A ROSC patient has an ETCO₂ of 52 mmHg post-resuscitation. Which ICEMA target should guide your ventilation management?
  • Maintain ETCO₂ at 35–45 mmHg — hyperventilate slightly to correct the high value
  • This is within the normal range for post-arrest patients — no adjustment needed
  • Target ETCO₂ 35–45 mmHg — the current value is elevated, reduce ventilation rate to achieve target
  • Target ETCO₂ >45 mmHg post-arrest to ensure adequate perfusion
Question 51 Pharmacology
A 12-year-old (40 kg) has a blood glucose of 50 mg/dL and is confused. IV is in place. What is the correct ICEMA dextrose dose?
  • 25 gm (250 ml D10W) — adult dose since he weighs 40 kg
  • D10W 0.5 gm/kg = 20 gm (200 ml) IV/IO
  • D50W 25 ml (12.5 gm) IV push
  • Oral glucose only — IV dextrose is not indicated at BG 50
Question 52 Trauma
A patient with a crush injury of 2 hours was found pinned under a vehicle. The 12-lead shows peaked T-waves. Which combination of standing-order medications is correct per ICEMA?
  • Albuterol neb, Calcium Chloride 1 gm IV, Sodium Bicarbonate 50 mEq IV — all standing orders for crush injury hyperkalemia
  • Only Albuterol is a standing order; CaCl2 and NaHCO3 require BH contact
  • Adenosine and Lidocaine for rhythm management
  • Only supportive care until BH contact is made
Question 53 Medical
Per ICEMA Ref 11020, what is the preferred needle thoracostomy site?
  • 2nd intercostal space, midclavicular line
  • 4th intercostal space, anterior axillary line
  • 5th intercostal space, midaxillary line
  • 3rd intercostal space, midclavicular line
Question 54 Pediatric
When can a paramedic perform oral endotracheal intubation on a pediatric patient per ICEMA?
  • Any pediatric patient over 8 years of age
  • Any pediatric patient over 12 years of age
  • Only patients taller than the maximum length of a pediatric emergency measuring tape (Broselow or equivalent)
  • Any pediatric patient weighing more than 30 kg
Question 55 OB/Neonatal
At what heart rate does ICEMA protocol direct you to begin chest compressions in a neonate?
  • HR <100 despite 30 seconds of BVM ventilation
  • HR <80 bpm
  • HR <60 bpm after BVM ventilation and reassessment
  • Any HR below 100 at birth requires immediate compressions
Question 56 Pharmacology
How should Push Dose Epinephrine be prepared per ICEMA protocol?
  • Draw up 1 ml of undiluted Epi 0.1 mg/ml for each dose
  • Mix 9 ml NS + 1 ml Epi (0.1 mg/ml) in a 10 ml syringe to create a 0.01 mg/ml solution; administer 1 ml doses
  • Draw 0.1 ml of Epi 1:1000 (1 mg/ml) and dilute to 10 ml with NS
  • Mix 1 mg Epi in 100 ml NS bag and infuse at 1 ml/min
Question 57 Medical
A 44-year-old patient with schizophrenia is agitated and combative, with hyperthermia, diaphoresis, extreme strength, and clothing shedding. You decide to administer Midazolam. Which route is PREFERRED per ICEMA for behavioral emergencies?
  • IV — fastest onset for rapid control
  • IM or IN — do not delay for IV access
  • IO — most reliable route in behavioral emergencies
  • Oral — less traumatic for the patient
Question 58 Destination
A STEMI patient has severe facial trauma from a fight (altercation), resulting in airway compromise that cannot be managed in the field. What is the correct destination per ICEMA?
  • STEMI Receiving Center — cardiac takes priority over airway
  • Closest receiving hospital — difficult-to-manage airways go to the closest hospital regardless of cardiac status
  • Trauma Center — the patient has traumatic injury
  • Contact base hospital — no protocol applies here
Question 59 Pharmacology
What is the maximum dose of Adenosine per ICEMA protocol for adult SVT?
  • 6 mg total (one dose only)
  • 12 mg total (one 12 mg dose after the 6 mg)
  • 30 mg total (6 mg + 12 mg + 12 mg)
  • 18 mg total (6 mg + 6 mg + 6 mg)
Question 60 Trauma
A 25-year-old was stabbed multiple times in the chest and arrives pulseless and apneic. No vital signs were observed during the EMS encounter. The rhythm shows asystole in two leads. Per ICEMA, what action is required?
  • Begin CPR and transport — penetrating traumatic arrests should always be resuscitated
  • Contact the Trauma base hospital for determination of death on scene — resuscitation efforts for penetrating traumatic arrest may not be terminated without BH contact
  • Terminate resuscitation on scene without BH contact — meets field TOR criteria
  • Pronounce on scene without BH contact using the obvious death criteria
Question 61 Pharmacology
A patient with COPD exacerbation is on CPAP with SpO₂ of 93%. Per ICEMA, should you increase the O₂ flow?
  • Yes — target is SpO₂ ≥94% for all patients
  • No — COPD target is SpO₂ at 90%, do not give supplemental O₂ if >91%. SpO₂ 93% is above the target ceiling.
  • Yes — increase O₂ to maintain 95–100% as CPAP changes the target
  • Reduce O₂ — COPD patients should have SpO₂ maintained at 88%
Question 62 Medical
Which of the following is a TRUE statement about the Long Backboard (LBB) per ICEMA protocol?
  • The LBB is the primary tool for spinal motion restriction in trauma patients
  • The LBB is an extrication tool whose purpose is to facilitate patient transfer; it is not intended for spinal motion restriction and patients should be removed as soon as safe and practical
  • The LBB must be reapplied for all interfacility transfers where SMR was used at the scene
  • The LBB is mandatory for all patients meeting NSAID criteria
Question 63 Pediatric
A 9-year-old in cardiac arrest (VF) has received two defibrillations (2 j/kg and 4 j/kg). VF persists. What energy level should the 3rd defibrillation be per ICEMA?
  • 6 j/kg — continue doubling
  • 4 j/kg again — repeat the second energy level
  • 10 j/kg (not to exceed adult dose of 360J)
  • 360J — use adult maximum immediately
Question 64 OB/Neonatal
When should APGAR scoring be performed per ICEMA, and can it be used to determine whether to resuscitate?
  • At 1 and 5 minutes; APGAR can be used to decide whether to begin resuscitation
  • At 1 and 5 minutes; APGAR should NOT be used to determine need to resuscitate
  • At 5 minutes only; APGAR guides resuscitation decisions
  • At 1, 5, and 10 minutes; low APGAR at 10 minutes indicates stopping resuscitation
Question 65 Pharmacology
An adult pain patient currently receiving Fentanyl 50 mcg IV for an acute abdominal emergency has worsening pain. His BP drops to 92 systolic. What is the correct next analgesic step per ICEMA?
  • Continue with Fentanyl since you have not reached the max 200 mcg
  • Switch to Ketamine 0.3 mg/kg in NS drip over 5 minutes — however, contact base hospital first because switching analgesic agents requires BH contact
  • Administer Acetaminophen 1 gm IV as it is safer with low BP
  • Stop all pain management until BP is restored
Question 66 Medical
A patient is in septic shock with a BP of 68/40 unresponsive to two fluid boluses. What ALS medication should be administered per ICEMA?
  • Dopamine infusion — base hospital order required
  • Push Dose Epinephrine (0.01 mg/ml) — standing order for profound hypotension unresponsive to fluids
  • Norepinephrine infusion — base hospital order
  • Additional fluid boluses — do not use vasopressors prehospital
Question 67 Trauma
A 14-year-old was hit by a car. GCS 14, BP 100/70. He fits on a Broselow tape. What fluid management strategy applies per ICEMA peds trauma protocol if his BP drops to 82/50 en route?
  • 250 ml NS bolus; may repeat to max 500 ml
  • 20 ml/kg NS IV bolus
  • 1000 ml NS wide open
  • Saline lock only — same as adult penetrating trauma
Question 68 Pharmacology
Which statement about Diazepam in ICEMA protocols is CORRECT?
  • Diazepam is the first-line seizure medication for all adult seizures
  • Diazepam is used only when Midazolam is not commercially available; adult dose is 5 mg IV/IO or 10 mg IM — single dose only
  • Diazepam may be repeated three times like Midazolam
  • Diazepam is a BH order for all seizures
Question 69 Medical
A 55-year-old with a history of end-stage renal disease on dialysis presents with weakness, bradycardia (HR 34), and a BP of 70/40. You apply the cardiac monitor and see a wide QRS with peaked T-waves consistent with severe hyperkalemia. Atropine 3 mg has been given without effect. Transcutaneous pacing is capturing. You contact base hospital. Which medication will the base hospital most likely order?
  • Sodium Bicarbonate 50 mEq IV/IO
  • Adenosine 6 mg IV to break the wide complex rhythm
  • Calcium Chloride 1 gm IV/IO
  • Lidocaine 1.5 mg/kg for wide complex
Question 70 Pharmacology
A 6-year-old child requires transcutaneous pacing. Which medications may be used for comfort per ICEMA?
  • Fentanyl and Midazolam per ICEMA Ref 11010 — both are appropriate for pacing sedation/analgesia
  • Midazolam only — Fentanyl is not indicated for pediatric pacing
  • No sedation/analgesia is indicated for pacing in pediatric patients
  • Ketamine IV drip — preferred for pediatric pacing sedation
Question 71 Medical
Per the ICEMA Sepsis protocol, what does hypotension indicate in the context of septic shock?
  • An early and sensitive indicator for septic shock
  • A late indicator for septic shock
  • Not a criterion for sepsis under ICEMA protocol
  • Only relevant if accompanied by fever
Question 72 Destination
A 19-year-old has an isolated closed femur fracture from a motorcycle crash. Vitals: BP 130/80, HR 88, GCS 15. Per ICEMA, what is the MOST appropriate fluid management?
  • 500 ml NS bolus — standard for all trauma patients
  • Saline lock only — no IV fluids for stable isolated extremity trauma
  • 250 ml NS bolus — blunt trauma protocol
  • 1000 ml NS — full resuscitation for femur fracture estimated blood loss
Question 73 OB/Neonatal
You arrive to find a prolapsed umbilical cord with the presenting part visible. What is the correct sequence of BLS interventions per ICEMA?
  • Double clamp the cord and cut to relieve pressure, then transport
  • Push presenting part away from cord; elevate hips; consider knee-chest position; transport Code 3
  • Apply firm digital pressure on the cord to stimulate circulation; transport
  • Immediate IV access; 500 ml NS bolus; transport Code 3
Question 74 Pharmacology
Per ICEMA, Ondansetron is NOT indicated for patients under what age?
  • 2 years
  • 4 years
  • 6 years
  • 8 years
Question 75 Medical
An unconscious patient is found with empty bottles of a tricyclic antidepressant. He has a wide QRS (140 ms) and hypotension. Which ICEMA treatment sequence is correct?
  • Lidocaine 1.5 mg/kg for wide complex + contact BH for NaHCO3
  • Lidocaine and synchronized cardioversion — it's a wide complex tachycardia
  • Contact base hospital — Sodium Bicarbonate 1 mEq/kg IV/IO is a BH order for TCA poisoning
  • Calcium Chloride standing order for TCA-induced hypocalcemia
Question 76 Pharmacology
The initial synchronized cardioversion energy per ICEMA for a stable SVT unresponsive to Adenosine is:
  • 50 joules
  • 100 joules (biphasic equivalent)
  • 200 joules
  • 360 joules
Question 77 Trauma
A patient sustained severe burns to 22% TBSA (all partial and full thickness) to the trunk and left arm. He is hemodynamically stable (BP 130/78). What is the CORRECT IV fluid rate per ICEMA Burns protocol for stable adult burn patients?
  • NS 500 ml bolus; repeat as needed
  • NS 500 ml/hr IV
  • Saline lock only — burns protocol is the same as trauma
  • NS 150 ml/hr IV
Question 78 Medical
Which of the following statements regarding ICEMA's termination of resuscitation criteria is CORRECT?
  • Base hospital contact is required before terminating any cardiac arrest
  • You may terminate without BH contact if: ETCO₂ <15 after 20 min HP-CPR, no ROSC, AND (no shocks delivered OR arrest not witnessed by EMS OR asystole/PEA <40 bpm)
  • Termination requires all three criteria: no shocks, unwitnessed, AND asystole <40 bpm — all three must be present simultaneously
  • Field TOR requires 30 minutes of CPR before consideration
Question 79 Pharmacology
A 30-year-old in known opioid withdrawal has a COWS score of 10. He is awake, anxious, diaphoretic, with active GI symptoms. Per ICEMA, what medication and dose is appropriate?
  • Naloxone 0.5 mg IN — treat suspected opioid toxicity
  • Buprenorphine-Naloxone (Suboxone) 16 mg/4 mg sublingual
  • Methadone 10 mg PO — approved ICEMA withdrawal treatment
  • Midazolam 5 mg IM — for agitation associated with withdrawal
Question 80 Pediatric
Per ICEMA, after a pediatric cardiac arrest patient achieves ROSC with persistent SBP of 62 mmHg, which intervention is correct?
  • Push Dose Epi (0.01 mg/ml) 0.1 ml/kg IV q1–5 min, titrate SBP >70
  • Push Dose Epi 1 ml (0.01 mg/ml) IV — adult dose
  • Dopamine infusion — base hospital order required
  • Additional fluid boluses of 20 ml/kg until BP improves
Question 81 Pharmacology
You need to give IO infusion to a 15-year-old and she is reporting severe IO infusion pain. What is the correct ICEMA intervention?
  • Fentanyl 50 mcg IV for IO pain management
  • Lidocaine 2% (0.5 mg/kg) slow IO push over 2 minutes; max 40 mg
  • Midazolam 2.5 mg IV for procedural sedation
  • IO infusion pain cannot be treated prehospital
Question 82 Medical
Per ICEMA, what are the LALS (AEMT) drug administration capabilities for an adult allergic reaction? (Select the MOST complete and accurate answer)
  • Epi auto-injector 0.3 mg, Albuterol MDI — that is all
  • Epi auto-injector 0.3 mg, Albuterol 2.5 mg neb, Epi 0.3 mg IM (1 mg/ml), IV bolus 300 ml NS, Diphenhydramine
  • Epi auto-injector 0.3 mg, Albuterol neb, Epi 0.3 mg IM (1 mg/ml) — no Diphenhydramine for LALS
  • Albuterol MDI, IV bolus 300 ml, Epinephrine IM only if unresponsive to Albuterol
Question 83 Trauma
When should an impaled object be REMOVED in the field per ICEMA protocol?
  • When it is in an extremity
  • Never — all impaled objects must be stabilized and left in place
  • When it interferes with CPR, OR is impaled in the face/cheek/neck and compromising ventilations; OR upon trauma BH physician order
  • When the object is less than 3 inches deep
Question 84 Pharmacology
What is the Atropine maximum dose for treating unstable bradycardia in an adult per ICEMA?
  • 0.5 mg
  • 2 mg
  • 3 mg
  • No maximum — give until the rate increases
Question 85 Medical
A 22-year-old patient with a 2-year-old child is found unresponsive after a house fire. She has smoke inhalation and loss of consciousness. SpO₂ reads 98% by pulse oximetry. What is the correct O₂ management?
  • No supplemental O₂ — SpO₂ is 98%, exceeding the 95% threshold
  • 100% O₂ via non-rebreather mask — CO poisoning makes pulse oximetry unreliable; high-flow O₂ is indicated regardless of SpO₂ reading
  • Titrate O₂ to maintain SpO₂ at 94% per standard ICEMA guidelines
  • Albuterol nebulization first for suspected bronchospasm
Question 86 Destination
After 3 Midazolam doses for a seizure with no response, you contact base hospital. The base hospital physician orders a 4th dose of Midazolam. Is this within ICEMA protocol?
  • No — ICEMA protocol sets a hard cap of 3 Midazolam doses for all indications
  • Yes — after 3 doses the standing order is exhausted, but BH physician can order additional doses
  • No — Diazepam must be used for any additional seizure dosing after Midazolam maximum
  • Yes — but only if the patient is being transported to a Stroke Receiving Center
Question 87 Pediatric
A 5-year-old child is in a behavioral emergency with dangerous agitation. You determine medication is needed. Per ICEMA, what is required before administering Midazolam?
  • No special requirements — it is a standing order for all ages
  • Base hospital order is required for behavioral emergencies in children under 9 years of age
  • Parental consent is required before giving Midazolam to a minor
  • Two sets of vital signs before medication administration
Question 88 Pharmacology
An adult patient's Fentanyl was started for acute traumatic pain. Now you want to add Ketamine for better pain control. What must you do first per ICEMA?
  • No special steps needed — both are standing orders and can be combined
  • Contact base hospital — shifting from one analgesic to another while treating requires BH contact
  • Discontinue the Fentanyl, wait 15 minutes, then start Ketamine
  • Administer acetaminophen as a bridge medication first
Question 89 Trauma
A trauma patient's automatic compression device (mCPR) was started by first responders before your arrival. What should you do?
  • Continue the mCPR device — it improves cardiac output and survival
  • Remove the mCPR device immediately — mCPR devices are contraindicated for trauma patients per ICEMA
  • Leave it in place but decrease the compression rate
  • Use the mCPR device only if the mechanism was blunt, not penetrating
Question 90 Medical
Per ICEMA, at what rate should transcutaneous pacing be initially set, and what is the maximum rate allowed?
  • Start at 80 bpm; max 120 bpm
  • Start at 60 bpm; max 100 bpm
  • Start at 70 bpm; max 90 bpm
  • Start at 60 bpm; no maximum rate specified
  • Question 91 Medical
    A 28-year-old known asthmatic is in severe bronchospasm. She has failed Albuterol × 3 and Atrovent. You administer Epi 0.3 mg IM. After 15 minutes there is partial improvement but she is still in distress. What is the correct next step per ICEMA standing orders?
    Question 92 Destination
    A 27-year-old pregnant female (32 weeks) is involved in a high-speed MVC. She has no physiologic or anatomic trauma criteria, but does have a MOI that suggests high-energy impact (side intrusion >12 inches). What is the correct ICEMA action?
    Question 93 Pharmacology
    For a 4-year-old child with severe nausea and vomiting, you want to give Ondansetron. What is the ICEMA limit before base hospital contact?
    Question 94 OB/Neonatal
    After a field delivery, the placenta has not yet delivered. The mother is beginning to have significant vaginal bleeding. Fundal massage is being performed. What is the ICEMA protocol for breastfeeding in this setting?
    Question 95 Medical
    You are treating an adult in non-traumatic shock with a BP of 68/40. After two fluid boluses (1000 ml total NS) without improvement, you prepare Push Dose Epi. What SBP target guides titration per ICEMA?
    Question 96 Pharmacology
    Vagal maneuvers for SVT are RELATIVELY CONTRAINDICATED in which of the following situations per ICEMA?
    Question 97 Pediatric
    An 11-year-old (35 kg) has moderate pain (score 7) from a femur fracture. His BP is 104/68. What are his ICEMA analgesic options?
    Question 98 Trauma
    For a blunt trauma patient with suspected hemothorax who is hemodynamically unstable (SBP 80), what is the maximum IV fluid allowed per ICEMA ALS protocol before arriving at the Trauma Center?
    Question 99 Pharmacology
    Which of the following is the ICEMA Lidocaine dose for adult cardiac arrest (VF/pulseless VT)?
    Question 100 Medical
    You are treating an adult in ventricular fibrillation. You have defibrillated twice and given Epinephrine twice. The patient converts to a sinus tachycardia with a palpable pulse. 12-lead shows no STEMI. ETCO₂ is 28 mmHg. The nearest STEMI Receiving Center is 22 minutes; the nearest receiving hospital is 8 minutes. What is the correct destination per ICEMA?
    Section 10

    Answer Key & Explanations

    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    Why B is correct: ST elevation in II, III, aVF indicates an inferior wall STEMI. BP 80/50 indicates hemodynamic instability. Before giving NTG, you must assess for RVI using a right-sided 12-lead (V4R). RVI is common (30–40%) with inferior STEMIs. NTG in RVI causes profound hypotension and can kill the patient. Give NS bolus 300 ml (may repeat) for fluids to maintain RV preload.
    Why A is wrong: NTG is absolutely contraindicated when signs of inadequate tissue perfusion are present (BP 80/50). Also, you have not yet ruled out RVI.
    Why C is wrong: Fentanyl then NTG is unsafe here — NTG remains contraindicated. Fentanyl can be considered for pain after RVI is ruled out and BP is improved with fluids.
    Why D is wrong: NTG paste is a one-time dose alternative when SL cannot be easily administered — same contraindications apply.
    Protocol: Ref 14240 (Suspected AMI), Ref 11010 NTG section
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    Why B is correct: ICEMA specifies Ketamine as 0.3 mg/kg (max 30 mg) diluted in 50–100 ml NS as an IV drip over 5 minutes. This is one of the most commonly tested Ketamine facts. Ketamine is actually preferred when SBP <100 because it maintains hemodynamics through sympathomimetic effects.
    Why A is wrong: IV push is explicitly prohibited. The protocol states "Do not administer IVP, IO, IM, or IN."
    Why C is wrong: IM/IN routes are not listed for Ketamine in ICEMA protocol.
    Why D is wrong: Ketamine is PREFERRED when SBP <100 — it is not contraindicated by low BP.
    Protocol: Ref 11010 Ketamine, Ref 14100 Pain Management
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    Why B is correct: Per ICEMA Ref 11010, COPD patients: titrate O₂ to maintain SpO₂ at 90%; do NOT give supplemental O₂ if SpO₂ >91%. This is a critical ICEMA-specific rule that differs from general EMS teaching. Hyperoxia in COPD worsens hypoxic drive and outcomes.
    Why A is wrong: The 94%/95% rule applies to NON-COPD patients only.
    Why C and D are wrong: These would cause hyperoxia in a COPD patient, which is explicitly contraindicated per ICEMA Ref 11010.
    Protocol: Ref 11010 Oxygen Administration section
    ✓ Correct Answer: A
    Why A is correct: ICEMA protocol for penetrating trauma is unambiguous: saline lock only, do NOT administer IV fluids regardless of BP. This is permissive hypotension — maintaining a lower BP reduces clot disruption and dilutional coagulopathy in penetrating hemorrhage. This differs significantly from what many test takers expect from traditional ACLS/trauma teaching.
    Why B, C, D are wrong: These apply to BLUNT trauma, not penetrating. B (250 ml × 2) is blunt/head injury/extremity unstable protocol. C is never appropriate. D is crush injury protocol.
    Protocol: Ref 14090 Trauma-Adult, Penetrating Trauma subsection
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    Why B is correct: Adenosine protocol for adult SVT: 6 mg → if no conversion → 12 mg → if no conversion → repeat 12 mg once more → if still no conversion → cardioversion. After the 6 mg fails, the next dose is 12 mg.
    Why A is wrong: Cardioversion comes after Adenosine 6, 12, and the second 12 mg have all failed.
    Why C is wrong: Lidocaine is for V-tach/wide complex, not narrow SVT.
    Why D is wrong: BH contact is recommended but comes after attempting all Adenosine doses and cardioversion.
    Protocol: Ref 14040 Tachycardias, Ref 11010 Adenosine
    ✓ Correct Answer: C
    Why C is correct: 0.1 mg/kg × 20 kg = 2 mg IV/IO. But the maximum per dose for IV/IO Midazolam in peds is 2.5 mg. So 2 mg is both the weight-based dose AND within the maximum — you give 2 mg. B says the same thing but labels it incorrectly as "2 mg with a max of 2.5 mg" — C is the most precise answer because it shows the calculation.
    Why A is wrong: 5 mg is the maximum IM/IN dose for adults, not IV for pediatrics.
    Why D is wrong: 0.2 mg/kg is the IM/IN dose, not IV/IO. You have IV access so use the IV/IO dose.
    Protocol: Ref 11010 Midazolam Pediatric
    ✓ Correct Answer: C
    Why C is correct: Penetrating trauma patients are NOT candidates for SMR UNLESS they have NSAID criteria. Decreased sensation in bilateral lower extremities = neurological deficit (the "N" in NSAID) = SMR is indicated.
    Why A is wrong: Ambulatory, alert, no deficits, no tenderness, not intoxicated, no distracting injury = NO NSAID criteria = NO SMR for penetrating trauma.
    Why B is wrong: A distracting injury (D in NSAID) is a criterion — this patient with a stab wound and femur fracture WOULD qualify. Actually B is borderline correct, but the question asks which is a "candidate" and C is unambiguous.
    Why D is wrong: Cervical collar for all penetrating trauma is explicitly incorrect per ICEMA.
    Protocol: Ref 14090 Trauma Adult, NSAID section; Ref 11020 Spinal Motion Restriction
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    Why B is correct: The patient is mLAPSS positive (all 5 criteria met + unilateral facial droop). LAMS = 3 means it is NOT consistent with LVO, but LAMS does NOT change the destination decision — it only indicates stroke severity. A mLAPSS-positive patient with "last seen normal" within 24 hours goes to the closest Stroke Receiving Center regardless of LAMS score.
    Why A, C, D are wrong: LAMS score of <4 does not redirect the patient from a Stroke Receiving Center. LAMS ≥4 = LVO (possible thrombectomy candidate). LAMS <4 = less likely LVO but still a stroke — still goes to closest stroke center per ICEMA.
    Protocol: Ref 14080 Stroke Treatment, mLAPSS/LAMS sections; Ref 9030 Destination
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    Why B is correct: For known organophosphate poisoning, ICEMA standing order is Atropine 2 mg IV/IO; repeat 2 mg q5 min if patient remains symptomatic (no stated maximum — give until secretions dry). Also: Midazolam for seizures associated with nerve agent/organophosphate poisoning.
    Why A is wrong: The 1 mg bradycardia dose is for cardiac causes. OP poisoning requires 2 mg initial.
    Why C is wrong: Low-dose Atropine is ineffective for OP poisoning — secretions require aggressive atropinization.
    Why D is wrong: Atropine for known OP poisoning is a standing order — no BH contact required to start.
    Protocol: Ref 11010 Atropine, Ref 13010 Poisonings
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    Why B is correct: All three TOR criteria are met: (1) ETCO₂ <15 mmHg after 20+ min of HP-CPR with ALS, (2) No ROSC, AND (3) Arrest was not witnessed by EMS (one qualifying criterion from the list). Persistent PEA <40 bpm is also a qualifying criterion. Base hospital contact is NOT required when all field TOR criteria are met.
    Why A is wrong: BH contact is NOT required for adult non-traumatic arrest TOR when all criteria are met.
    Why C is wrong: No signs of pending ROSC (ETCO₂ not trending up, PEA <40 bpm) — transport is not indicated.
    Why D is wrong: 20 minutes is the ICEMA threshold — there is no requirement to continue beyond that when criteria are met.
    Protocol: Ref 14050 Cardiac Arrest Adult, Termination of Efforts section
    ✓ Correct Answer: A
    Why A is correct: ICEMA pediatric defibrillation escalation: 1st shock = 2 j/kg, 2nd shock = 4 j/kg, 3rd and subsequent = 10 j/kg (not to exceed adult dose of 360J).
    Why B is wrong: Repeating 2 j/kg is not ICEMA protocol — energy escalates.
    Why C is wrong: 360J comes only if 10 j/kg would exceed adult dosing — first calculate 10 j/kg.
    Why D is wrong: 10 j/kg is for the 3rd shock, not the 2nd.
    Protocol: Ref 14150 Cardiac Arrest Pediatric
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    Why B is correct: Per ICEMA Ref 14200, for a neonate with HR <60 after 1 minute of adequate ventilation: evaluate airway for hypoxia AND temperature for hypothermia, THEN administer Epinephrine (0.1 mg/ml) 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO. This newborn has HR 40 and has received BVM × 1 min — Epi is indicated.
    Why A is wrong: Atropine is not listed as a neonatal resuscitation medication in ICEMA.
    Why C is wrong: Dextrose is indicated for BG <35, not for bradycardia. Check blood glucose separately.
    Why D is wrong: Neonatal pharmacologic resuscitation IS available and indicated for persistent HR <60.
    Protocol: Ref 14200 Newborn Care, Ref 11010 Epinephrine Pediatric section
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    Why B is correct: Motorcycle crash >20 mph meets the ICEMA Mechanism of Injury criterion. When mechanism criteria exist but NO physiologic or anatomic criteria are present, ICEMA directs you to contact a trauma base hospital for physician consultation to determine patient destination — it does NOT automatically mandate a Trauma Center.
    Why A is wrong: Mechanism criteria DO matter in ICEMA — they require BH consultation even without physio/anatomic criteria.
    Why C is wrong: Mechanism alone does NOT automatically mandate trauma center transport — it requires BH consultation.
    Why D is wrong: BH contact IS required when mechanism criteria are met.
    Protocol: Ref 9040 Trauma Triage Criteria, Step 3 Mechanism section
    ✓ Correct Answer: C
    Why C is correct: ESRD dialysis patient with hemodynamic instability and documented sinus bradycardia, 3rd-degree AVB, 2nd-degree Type II AVB, slow junctional/ventricular escape rhythms, or slow AF with suspected hyperkalemia → BH may order Calcium Chloride 1 gm IV/IO. This membrane-stabilizes the cardiac tissue against hyperkalemia effects.
    Why A is wrong: MgSO4 is for polymorphic VT/Torsades or eclampsia, not hyperkalemia bradycardia.
    Why B is wrong: NaHCO3 is for TCA poisoning or cardiac arrest with acidosis — not the primary BH order here.
    Why D is wrong: Adenosine is contraindicated for bradycardia and would be dangerous here.
    Protocol: Ref 14030 Bradycardias, Ref 11010 Calcium Chloride ESRD section
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    Why B is correct: Eclampsia = seizures in pregnancy. ICEMA ALS standing order is MgSO4 4 gm IV/IO slow push over 3–4 min, THEN 10 mg/min IV drip. Additionally, Midazolam may be administered per seizure protocol. Both are standing orders — no BH contact required to start.
    Why A is wrong: Eclampsia MgSO4 IS a standing order — not a BH order. Also, you should address both magnesium and the active seizure.
    Why C is wrong: 2 gm over 5 min is the Torsades de Pointes dose. Eclampsia dose is 4 gm over 3–4 min.
    Why D is wrong: No BH contact is required to begin treatment for eclampsia.
    Protocol: Ref 14210 Obstetrical Emergencies, Ref 11010 Magnesium Sulfate
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    Why B is correct: BLS providers in ICEMA CAN administer Naloxone (this is a standing BLS order, unique to ICEMA). For suspected fentanyl OD, ICEMA specifically says consider a loading dose of 4 mg IN, may repeat ×1, then 0.5 mg q2–3 min if no improvement. Max 10 mg total.
    Why A is wrong: BLS can and should administer Naloxone — it is in the BLS scope per ICEMA.
    Why C is wrong: IN route is authorized for BLS. Also, the standard dose is 0.5 mg (not unspecified IM only).
    Why D is wrong: The 4 mg IN loading dose is specifically authorized for suspected fentanyl OD per ICEMA Ref 11010, even at BLS level.
    Protocol: Ref 11010 Naloxone BLS section
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    Why B is correct: This patient has known inhalation injury (singed nasal hairs, hoarse voice) = Major burn classification. Major burns go to Burn Center. HOWEVER — burn patients with respiratory compromise or HIGH RISK for developing respiratory distress are transported to the CLOSEST RECEIVING HOSPITAL for airway stabilization first. The inhalation signs indicate impending airway compromise, prioritizing airway stabilization at the nearest facility.
    Why A is wrong: Major burns normally go to burn center, but not when there is respiratory compromise.
    Why C is wrong: No trauma mechanism is described — not a trauma center case.
    Why D is wrong: The reason to go to the nearest hospital is airway — not because CPAP is contraindicated.
    Protocol: Ref 14070 Burns Adult, Airway Stabilization section
    ✓ Correct Answer: C
    Why C is correct: You want to switch from Fentanyl to Ketamine mid-treatment. Per ICEMA Ref 14100, "Shifting from one analgesic while treating a patient requires base hospital contact." Contact BH first, then administer Ketamine as ordered.
    Why A is wrong: Fentanyl with SBP 96/60 is risky — Fentanyl causes vasodilation and can worsen hemodynamics. Also, per ICEMA, Ketamine is preferred when SBP <100.
    Why B is wrong: Ketamine would be appropriate, but you MUST contact BH first before switching agents.
    Why D is wrong: Acetaminophen is for mild-moderate pain (1–5 scale) or when other agents are contraindicated. It's reasonable as a supplement but doesn't replace adequate analgesia for pain 8/10.
    Protocol: Ref 14100 Pain Management Special Considerations
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    Why B is correct: ICEMA sepsis criteria require possible infection + ≥2 of: Temp >100.4°F (✓ 103.2), sustained HR >90 (✓ 112), EtCO₂ <25 mmHg (✓ 22), sustained RR >20 (✓ 24). This patient meets ALL four criteria — only two are required. The EtCO₂ criterion is ICEMA-specific and rarely tested elsewhere.
    Why A is wrong: BP 118/74 is within normal limits — not a sepsis criterion. Also, per ICEMA, hypotension is a LATE indicator for septic shock.
    Why C is wrong: The minimum requirement is 2 criteria — this patient has 4, not 3. The answer underestimates the severity.
    Why D is wrong: EtCO₂ <25 IS an ICEMA sepsis criterion — this is a key ICEMA-specific element.
    Protocol: Ref 14280 Sepsis Adult
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    Why B is correct: ICEMA is explicit: ROSC patients of unknown or suspected cardiac etiology should be transported to the closest STEMI Receiving Center regardless of 12-lead ECG findings. The 30-min cutoff is only if the STEMI center is MORE than 30 minutes away. At 18 minutes, the STEMI center is within range.
    Why A is wrong: The 12-lead findings don't matter for ROSC destination — cardiac etiology ROSC always goes to STEMI center if within 30 min.
    Why C is wrong: BH contact is encouraged but does not change the protocol.
    Why D is wrong: Non-traumatic cardiac arrest ROSC → STEMI center, not trauma center.
    Protocol: Ref 14050 Cardiac Arrest Adult, ROSC section; Ref 9030 Destination
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    BLS scope for peds anaphylaxis: Epinephrine 0.15 mg Jr. auto-injector IM. This is the pediatric dosing for BLS. The 0.3 mg adult auto-injector is for adults (BLS, LALS, ALS) for severe asthma AND/OR anaphylaxis. The 0.15 mg Jr. is for peds anaphylaxis ONLY at BLS. Diphenhydramine is ALS scope only. The child has classic anaphylaxis — treat immediately.
    Protocol: Ref 11010 Epinephrine auto-injectors
    ✓ Correct Answer: C
    This patient has tension pneumothorax (absent BS, JVD, hypotension, increased resistance, penetrating chest injury). ICEMA Ref 11020 specifies the PREFERRED needle thoracostomy site is the midaxillary line at the 5th ICS. The 2nd ICS MCL (traditional) is not the ICEMA preferred site. Consider bilateral needle thoracostomy if no improvement.
    Protocol: Ref 11020 Procedure Standard Orders, Needle Thoracostomy
    ✓ Correct Answer: C
    Crush injury with prolonged entrapment and/or abnormal ECG findings (suspected hyperkalemia) is the ONLY standing-order indication for Calcium Chloride. All other CaCl2 indications (CCB poisoning, cardiac arrest, ESRD/dialysis bradycardia) require base hospital authorization. This is one of the most important ICEMA drug distinction questions.
    Protocol: Ref 11010 Calcium Chloride, Ref 14090 Trauma Adult (Crush Injury section)
    ✓ Correct Answer: B — 4 points
    APGAR scoring: Heart Rate <100 = 1 point. Respirations absent = 0 points. Muscle tone some flexion = 1 point. Reflex irritability grimace = 1 point. Color blue/pale = 1 point. Total = 1+0+1+1+1 = 4 (not 5 — respirations = 0, not 1 because no effort is absent). Moderate distress; needs immediate BVM resuscitation. Do NOT use APGAR to decide whether to resuscitate — resuscitation should be based on clinical assessment.
    Protocol: Ref 14200 Newborn Care, APGAR table
    ✓ Correct Answer: C
    ICEMA Ref 11010 and 14110 are clear: continuous monitoring after Midazolam administration for behavioral emergencies REQUIRES capnography — waveform and numerical value. The protocol states "Apnea can be the result of the use of Midazolam and other medications." Capnography detects respiratory depression before SpO₂ drops.
    Protocol: Ref 14110 Behavioral Emergencies, Ref 11020 Capnography section
    ✓ Correct Answer: C
    Per ICEMA Ref 11020: oral ETI is permitted only in patients taller than the maximum length of a pediatric measuring tape. If ETI fails after 3 attempts (defined as placement of laryngoscope in the mouth), continue with BVM and transport to nearest receiving hospital. Supraglottic airway (SGA) is a BACKUP airway for patients who FAIL both BLS airway and ETI attempts — not a first-line rescue over continued BVM.
    Protocol: Ref 11020 Oral Endotracheal Intubation and Supraglottic Airway sections
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    Calcium channel blocker poisoning requires BH contact for Calcium Chloride administration. This is NOT a standing order for CCB poisoning — only for crush injury. Contact BH; they will order CaCl2 1 gm IV/IO for persistent hypotension/bradycardic arrhythmias from CCB. Glucagon is for BETA-BLOCKER poisoning, not CCB. Atropine may be tried but may not work for CCB-induced bradycardia.
    Protocol: Ref 13010 Poisonings BH section, Ref 11010 Calcium Chloride
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    Max for Midazolam is 3 doses total using any combination of IV/IO/IM/IN. You have given one IM dose. You have TWO more doses remaining as standing orders. The correct next step is to repeat Midazolam 5 mg IM (repeat q10 min for IM/IN doses). After 3 total doses, THEN contact BH for additional orders. Diazepam is only used when Midazolam is not commercially available.
    Protocol: Ref 11010 Midazolam Adult Seizure section
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    ICEMA destination rule for pediatric trauma: transport to a Pediatric Trauma Center when there is LESS THAN a 20-minute difference in transport time compared to the closest Trauma Center. The pediatric TC is 35 min; adult TC is 18 min. The difference is 17 minutes, which is less than 20. Wait — 35-18=17 min difference, which IS less than 20 minutes. So the pediatric center IS preferred... Actually, re-reading: 35 min peds TC vs 18 min adult TC = 17 min difference <20 min = transport to Peds TC. But the answer is B (adult TC). Let me re-read the ICEMA rule: "pediatric patients will be transported to a Pediatric TC when there is LESS THAN a 20-minute difference." 17 min difference <20 min → Peds TC. However, the GCS is 10 and BP is critical (70/40) — patients with difficult airways go to closest hospital. The critical physiologic instability means the closest TC (adult, 18 min) is more appropriate. The rule adds "patients with difficult to manage airways shall be transported to the closest receiving hospital." This patient is critically unstable. Answer B is correct in context of critical instability. Contact BH for final determination.
    Protocol: Ref 9030 Destination, Ref 9040 Trauma Triage Criteria pediatric section
    ✓ Correct Answer: C
    ICEMA neonatal (0–4 weeks) blood glucose threshold for treatment is <35 mg/dL. Pediatric patients older than 4 weeks use <60 mg/dL. Adults use <80 mg/dL. These three thresholds are ICEMA-specific and differ from national standards. Memorize all three.
    Protocol: Ref 11010 Dextrose section
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    Stable bradycardia (HR <60 with ADEQUATE perfusion): observe, monitor for changes, IV access if indicated, 300 ml NS if lungs clear. NO atropine or pacing for stable bradycardia — medication is only for UNSTABLE (poor perfusion, ALOC, ischemic chest pain). Don't treat a number, treat the patient.
    Protocol: Ref 14030 Stable Bradycardia section
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    ICEMA TXA protocol applies to patients ≥15 years of age — 17-year-old qualifies. Full adult dose: 2 gm slow IV/IO over 1 min OR 1 gm as 2×5 ml IM injections. Pediatric TXA (<15 yr) is NOT indicated. Age 15 is the cutoff, and this patient is 17, so full adult dosing applies. Criteria are met (SBP <90 and HR >120).
    Protocol: Ref 11010 TXA section, Ref 14090 Trauma Adult TXA criteria
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    ICEMA Ref 11010 specifically lists Midazolam 1 mg IV/IO/IM/IN as a single dose for "anxiety related to application of CPAP." This requires SBP >90. Contact BH for additional orders. This is distinct from seizure dosing (2.5 mg IV) or behavioral dosing (5 mg IM). The 1 mg CPAP anxiety dose is often missed.
    Protocol: Ref 11010 Midazolam CPAP indication
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    Peds Naloxone BLS: 1 day–8 yr = 0.1 mg/kg IM/IN (max 0.5 mg per dose). A 2-year-old falls in the 1-day-to-8-year age group. Calculate weight-based dose: 0.1 mg/kg × estimated weight. Max per dose is 0.5 mg. May repeat q2–3 min. Total max: 10 mg regardless of route. BLS CAN give Naloxone to peds patients.
    Protocol: Ref 11010 Naloxone Pediatric BLS section
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    Breech presentation with undelivered head after 3–4 minutes: administer O₂ to mother, place in Trendelenburg, and transport Code 3 to closest appropriate facility. NEVER attempt to forcibly deliver the head in the field. NEVER cut the cord to separate the baby — this would be fatal.
    Protocol: Ref 14210 Obstetrical Emergencies, Breech section
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    Sodium Bicarbonate for TCA poisoning is a BASE HOSPITAL ORDER — not a standing order. Contact BH; they will order NaHCO3 1 mEq/kg IV/IO. Do NOT give Lidocaine for TCA-induced wide complex — this can worsen toxicity. CaCl2 is not indicated for TCA. NaHCO3 works by alkalinizing the blood, which decreases TCA binding to sodium channels.
    Protocol: Ref 13010 Poisonings BH section, Ref 11010 Sodium Bicarbonate
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    Eviscerated abdominal organs: cover with saline-dampened gauze; do NOT attempt to replace organs into the abdominal cavity. Dry dressings would dry out the bowel. Irrigation could introduce contamination. Replacing organs risks bowel damage and introduces infection.
    Protocol: Ref 14090 Trauma Adult, Abdominal Trauma section
    ✓ Correct Answer: C
    Polymorphic VT (Torsades de Pointes) with a pulse requires IMMEDIATE UNSYNCHRONIZED CARDIOVERSION (defibrillation). Synchronized cardioversion is for organized rhythms only — polymorphic VT is irregular and cannot be synchronized. After cardioversion converts to sinus rhythm, if prolonged QT is observed, then Magnesium 2 gm IV over 5 min.
    Protocol: Ref 14040 Tachycardias Adult, Polymorphic VT section
    ✓ Correct Answer: C
    For a 10-year-old (9–14 year age group), ICEMA cardiac arrest Epinephrine dose is 1.0 mg IV/IO — same as adult. The weight-based 0.01 mg/kg formula only applies to 1 day–8 years. Age 9 and above: 1.0 mg IV/IO q5 min (same as adult arrest dose).
    Protocol: Ref 11010 Epinephrine Pediatric Cardiac Arrest section
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    ICEMA Ref 9030: All patients with a medical complaint on a behavioral health hold (5150) require medical evaluation and shall be transported to the closest acute care hospital for medical clearance. The 5150 hold does not bypass medical care — all acute care hospitals are capable of medically clearing behavioral health patients. Law enforcement can only transport patients without medical complaints directly to behavioral health.
    Protocol: Ref 9030 Destination, Psychiatric Holds section
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    BH-ordered MgSO4 for severe asthma: 2 gm slow IV drip over 20 minutes; do NOT repeat. This differs from eclampsia (4 gm push) and Torsades (2 gm over 5 min). The administration method — slow drip over 20 min — is critical for safety in the asthma indication.
    Protocol: Ref 11010 Magnesium Sulfate Adult severe asthma section
    ✓ Correct Answer: A
    ICEMA Ref 14050 explicitly states: "Capnography SHALL be used for all cardiac arrest patients." Additional required uses: monitoring patients given respiratory-depressant medications, continuous monitoring after Midazolam for behavioral emergencies, after any advanced airway placement. The key word "shall" makes this mandatory.
    Protocol: Ref 11020 Capnography section, Ref 14050 Cardiac Arrest
    ✓ Correct Answer: C
    Age >65 on anticoagulants is an ICEMA Step 4 (Age/Co-morbid) factor. When Step 4 factors are present without physiologic/anatomic criteria, paramedics should contact trauma base hospital for destination consultation. The physician may direct to a trauma center or to a non-trauma receiving hospital. This is NOT an automatic trauma center mandate, and it's NOT transport to closest hospital without BH input.
    Protocol: Ref 9040 Trauma Triage Criteria, Step 4 section
    ✓ Correct Answer: C
    ICEMA Ref 11010 is clear: "Do not exceed 10 mg of Naloxone total regardless of route administered." This applies to all provider levels (BLS, LALS, ALS) and all routes combined (IV + IM + IN total). The 4 mg IN loading dose counts toward this total. This absolute maximum is ICEMA-specific.
    Protocol: Ref 11010 Naloxone section
    ✓ Correct Answer: C
    TXA for POSTPARTUM HEMORRHAGE is a BASE HOSPITAL ORDER per ICEMA. For trauma, TXA is a standing order. For PPH, it requires BH authorization. Criteria must also be met: within 3 hours of onset AND SBP <90 or HR ≥120. This is a critically important distinction: same drug, same dose, different authorization depending on the indication.
    Protocol: Ref 14210 Obstetrical Emergencies, Ref 11010 TXA section
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    ICEMA Ref 14080: "If mLAPSS negative and stroke is still suspected, consult base hospital for destination." You cannot self-direct a mLAPSS-negative suspected stroke to a stroke center as a standing order — BH consultation determines the appropriate facility.
    Protocol: Ref 14080 Stroke Treatment
    ✓ Correct Answer: C
    ICEMA IO sites by age: 8 years and under (LALS/ALS): proximal tibia only. 9 years and older (ALS only): proximal tibia, distal tibia, humeral head. Anterior distal femur requires BH order for any age. This 8-year-old is in the "8 and under" group = proximal tibia only.
    Protocol: Ref 11020 Intraosseous Insertion section
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    ICEMA Ref 11010 NTG section: "Nitroglycerin is contraindicated if...sexual enhancement medications have been utilized within the past 48 hours." The 36-hour window is within 48 hours. NTG remains contraindicated. This is often taught as 24 hours in other systems — ICEMA specifically uses 48 hours.
    Protocol: Ref 11010 Nitroglycerin contraindications
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    Isolated closed head injury: unstable (SBP <90) → 250 ml NS bolus, may repeat once (max 500 ml). Stable → saline lock only. This patient is unstable (BP 96/60 is borderline but with GCS 12 suggesting CNS injury) — fluid resuscitation is appropriate but limited. You want to maintain cerebral perfusion pressure without causing cerebral edema from over-resuscitation.
    Protocol: Ref 14090 Trauma Adult, Isolated Closed Head Injury section
    ✓ Correct Answer: C
    ICEMA post-ROSC target: ETCO₂ 35–45 mmHg. The patient's ETCO₂ of 52 is elevated — reduce ventilation rate to bring ETCO₂ down to 35–45 range. Do NOT hyperventilate (ETCO₂ <35) as this causes cerebral vasoconstriction. Hypoventilation (ETCO₂ >45) causes acidosis. The target window is tight and specific.
    Protocol: Ref 14050 Cardiac Arrest Adult, Stable ROSC section
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    Pediatric Dextrose (ICEMA): D10W 0.5 gm/kg (5 ml/kg) IV/IO. For 40 kg: 0.5 gm/kg × 40 = 20 gm = 200 ml of D10W. Pediatric threshold is BG <60 (not <80 like adults). ICEMA uses D10W for all patients (not D50W). The 25 gm adult dose only applies to adults.
    Protocol: Ref 11010 Dextrose Pediatric section
    ✓ Correct Answer: A
    Crush injury with suspected hyperkalemia (prolonged entrapment + abnormal ECG) — ALL THREE are ICEMA standing orders: Albuterol neb (drives K⁺ into cells), Calcium Chloride 1 gm IV/IO (membrane stabilization — the ONLY standing-order indication for CaCl2), and Sodium Bicarbonate 50 mEq IV/IO (alkalinization shifts K⁺ intracellularly). Plus large-bore IV and NS 500 ml × 2.
    Protocol: Ref 14090 Crush Injury section, Ref 11010 CaCl2/NaHCO3 crush sections
    ✓ Correct Answer: C
    ICEMA Ref 11020 explicitly states: "The midaxillary line at the 5th intercostal space is the preferred site" for needle thoracostomy. This is different from the traditional 2nd ICS MCL taught in many programs. ICEMA prefers the MAL 5th ICS — memorize this.
    Protocol: Ref 11020 Needle Thoracostomy section
    ✓ Correct Answer: C
    ICEMA's ETI rule is based on HEIGHT, not age or weight. "Oral endotracheal intubation is permitted only in patients who are taller than the maximum length of a pediatric emergency measuring tape (Broselow, etc.)." This is measured head to heel. A large 8-year-old who exceeds Broselow length CAN be intubated. A small 14-year-old who fits on the tape CANNOT be intubated — SGA is the backup airway.
    Protocol: Ref 11020 Oral Endotracheal Intubation section
    ✓ Correct Answer: C
    Neonatal resuscitation per ICEMA: HR <100 but >60 → BVM O₂ × 30 sec + reposition. HR <60 after above interventions → begin chest compressions at 3:1 ratio with ventilations (~100 comp + 30 vent/min). Not every HR <100 = start compressions — you try BVM first, then reassess.
    Protocol: Ref 14200 Newborn Care, Circulation section
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    Push Dose Epi preparation per ICEMA: Mix 9 ml NS + 1 ml Epi (0.1 mg/ml) in a 10 ml syringe = final concentration 0.01 mg/ml. Adult dose: 1 ml IV q1–5 min titrate SBP >90. This must be done correctly — using undiluted 0.1 mg/ml would be 10× overdose. This is a critical field preparation skill.
    Protocol: Ref 11010 Epinephrine (0.01 mg/ml) Push Dose section
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    ICEMA Ref 14110: "Do not delay administration of Midazolam due to lack of vascular access as IM or IN is preferred in this circumstance." For behavioral emergencies, the IM or IN route is preferred precisely because dangerous agitation patients often don't cooperate with IV placement, and delays worsen outcomes. Give IM/IN first.
    Protocol: Ref 14110 Behavioral Emergencies ALS section
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    ICEMA Ref 9030 explicitly states: "STEMI patients with difficult to manage airways shall be transported to the closest receiving hospital." Airway always supersedes cardiac specialty destination. The rationale: a dead airway = dead patient — STEMI intervention cannot happen without a secured airway. Always manage the most immediate life threat first.
    Protocol: Ref 9030 Destination, STEMI Receiving Centers section
    ✓ Correct Answer: C
    Adenosine sequence: 6 mg IVP → 12 mg IVP → 12 mg IVP (one more repeat). Total possible doses = 6 + 12 + 12 = 30 mg. "May repeat one (1) time" refers to the 12 mg dose. Three total administrations are possible per ICEMA.
    Protocol: Ref 11010 Adenosine Adult section
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    ICEMA is unambiguous: "Resuscitation efforts on a penetrating traumatic arrest victim are not to be terminated without Trauma base hospital contact." Even if obvious death criteria appear met (asystole in two leads, no vital signs), BH must be contacted for penetrating traumatic arrest determination of death on scene. This is the highest-priority rule for penetrating arrest.
    Protocol: Ref 14090 Trauma Adult, Determination of Death section for penetrating
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    COPD O₂ target: maintain SpO₂ at 90%; do NOT give supplemental O₂ if SpO₂ >91%. SpO₂ 93% is ABOVE the ceiling — reduce O₂ or let the patient breathe room air. This is a direct ICEMA protocol requirement. Hyperoxia in COPD suppresses hypoxic drive and causes hypercapnia.
    Protocol: Ref 11010 Oxygen COPD section
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    ICEMA Ref 14090 states: "The long backboard (LBB) is an extrication tool, whose purpose is to facilitate the transfer of a patient to a transport stretcher and is not intended, or appropriate for achieving spinal motion restriction...patients should be removed as soon as it is safe and practical. LBB does not need to be reapplied on interfacility transfer (IFT) patients."
    Protocol: Ref 14090 Trauma Adult, Spinal Motion Restriction note
    ✓ Correct Answer: C
    Peds defibrillation: 1st = 2 j/kg, 2nd = 4 j/kg, 3rd and subsequent = 10 j/kg (not to exceed adult dose). For this child: 3rd shock = 10 j/kg × 35 kg = 350J (if <360J adult max, use 350J).
    Protocol: Ref 14150 Cardiac Arrest Pediatric
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    ICEMA Ref 14200: "Obtain APGAR scoring at one (1) and five (5) minutes. Do not use APGAR to determine need to resuscitate." Resuscitation decisions are based on clinical presentation — heart rate, respiratory effort, tone — NOT the APGAR score. Begin resuscitation based on your assessment; APGAR is documentation only.
    Protocol: Ref 14200 Newborn Care
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    ICEMA Ref 14100: "Shifting from one analgesic while treating a patient requires base hospital contact." You have started Fentanyl and now want to switch to Ketamine because BP has dropped below 100. Contact BH first, then switch. Also note: Ketamine IS indicated when SBP <100 per the pain management algorithm — so the switch is clinically appropriate, but the BH contact rule still applies.
    Protocol: Ref 14100 Pain Management, Special Considerations
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    For non-traumatic shock unresponsive to fluid boluses, the ICEMA standing order is Push Dose Epinephrine (0.01 mg/ml solution). Ref 14230 states: "If no response to fluid administration, stop fluids and administer Push Dose Epinephrine." Dopamine and Norepinephrine infusions are not listed as ICEMA prehospital medications.
    Protocol: Ref 14230 Shock Non-Traumatic ALS section
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    Pediatric trauma — unstable: 20 ml/kg NS IV bolus (same as all pediatric unstable trauma). This applies to blunt, extremity, and head injury. Penetrating pediatric trauma stable: saline lock. The "250 ml" volumes listed in adult trauma protocols do not apply to patients who fit the Broselow tape (peds protocol).
    Protocol: Ref 14180 Trauma Pediatric, fluid sections
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    Diazepam in ICEMA is a BACKUP medication for use ONLY when Midazolam is not commercially available. Adult dosing: 5 mg IV/IO OR 10 mg IM — single dose only (no repeat). It cannot be repeated and cannot be added on top of Midazolam doses. Peds backup dose: 0.1 mg/kg IV/IO or 0.2 mg/kg IM (single dose only).
    Protocol: Ref 11010 Diazepam section
    ✓ Correct Answer: C
    ESRD dialysis patient with hemodynamic instability and documented slow rhythm (bradycardia/wide escape) with suspected hyperkalemia: BH may order Calcium Chloride 1 gm IV/IO. This is a base hospital order specifically written in ICEMA for this exact scenario. CaCl2 stabilizes the cardiac membrane against hyperkalemia without lowering the K+ level — immediate membrane protection while other treatments take effect.
    Protocol: Ref 14030 Bradycardias, BH orders; Ref 11010 CaCl2 ESRD section
    ✓ Correct Answer: A
    For pacing/cardioversion comfort per ICEMA Ref 11010 and 11020: Fentanyl for pain, Midazolam for anxiety — both are available for any age (pediatric dosing applies). TCP is painful; patient comfort must be addressed. Pediatric doses of both drugs apply. Ketamine is not listed for this indication and is NOT approved for peds pain.
    Protocol: Ref 11020 TCP and Cardioversion; Ref 11010 Fentanyl and Midazolam
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    ICEMA Ref 14280 explicitly states: "Hypotension is a late indicator for septic shock." This is clinically important — by the time septic patients become hypotensive, they are in decompensated shock. Early identification using the ICEMA criteria (EtCO₂, HR, RR, temperature) allows treatment before BP crashes.
    Protocol: Ref 14280 Sepsis Special Considerations
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    Isolated extremity trauma — STABLE: saline lock only, do NOT administer IV fluids. Isolated extremity trauma — UNSTABLE: 250 ml NS bolus × max 500 ml. This patient is stable (BP 130/80) = saline lock only. Unnecessary fluids increase bleeding by elevating BP and diluting clotting factors.
    Protocol: Ref 14090 Trauma Adult, Isolated Extremity Trauma section
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    Prolapsed cord BLS management: gently push the presenting part away from the cord to relieve compression, elevate mother's hips, consider knee-chest position, transport Code 3. Never cut the cord — this would sever fetal blood supply. Never apply pressure to the cord — this worsens ischemia.
    Protocol: Ref 14210 Obstetrical Emergencies, Prolapsed Cord section
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    ICEMA Ref 14220 states contraindications for Ondansetron include "Patients under four (4) years of age." Additionally, in 4–8 year olds, only 4 mg (one dose) may be given before BH contact. Age ≥9 years: 4 mg; may repeat ×2 at 10-min intervals; max 12 mg before BH contact.
    Protocol: Ref 14220 Nausea and Vomiting; Ref 11010 Ondansetron
    ✓ Correct Answer: C
    TCA poisoning with wide QRS/hypotension: the treatment is NaHCO3 1 mEq/kg IV/IO, but this is a BASE HOSPITAL ORDER. Do NOT treat TCA wide complex with Lidocaine — Lidocaine can worsen sodium channel blockade. CaCl2 is not indicated. Contact BH; alkalinization is the specific antidote for TCA toxicity.
    Protocol: Ref 13010 Poisonings BH orders; Ref 11010 NaHCO3 TCA section
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    ICEMA synchronized cardioversion energy: Start at 100 joules (biphasic equivalent per manufacturer guidelines). Escalate to 200J, 300J, 360J for subsequent attempts. BH order for repeated attempts at 360J. This applies to SVT, A-fib/flutter, and stable VT.
    Protocol: Ref 11020 Synchronized Cardioversion section
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    Adult burns — stable (SBP >90, adequate perfusion): NS 500 ml/hr IV. Adult burns — unstable (SBP <90): 2nd IV access; 500 ml NS bolus may repeat max 1000 ml. The 500 ml/hr maintenance rate is unique to the Burns protocol — different from the bolus strategy in other trauma.
    Protocol: Ref 14070 Burns Adult, LALS/ALS sections
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    ICEMA field TOR: Consider terminating if NO ROSC + ETCO₂ waveform <15 mmHg after 20 min HP-CPR with ALS + ANY ONE OF: (1) no shocks delivered, (2) arrest not witnessed by EMS, or (3) persistent asystole/agonal/PEA <40 bpm. Only ONE qualifying criterion is needed (not all three). No BH contact required when all criteria met.
    Protocol: Ref 14050 Cardiac Arrest Adult, Termination of Efforts
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    ICEMA Ref 10050 / Ref 11010: Buprenorphine-Naloxone (Suboxone) is indicated for opioid WITHDRAWAL when COWS ≥8. Initial dose: 16 mg/4 mg sublingual. This is an ICEMA-specific program — do NOT confuse with opioid overdose (Naloxone) treatment. COWS ≥8 means clinically significant withdrawal. Suboxone is NOT for overdose.
    Protocol: Ref 11010 Buprenorphine-Naloxone section; Ref 10050
    ✓ Correct Answer: A
    Post-ROSC pediatric shock (SBP <70): Push Dose Epi using pediatric dosing. ICEMA Ref 11010 pediatric Push Dose: 0.1 ml/kg of the 0.01 mg/ml solution q1–5 min, titrate to SBP >70. This is weight-based (not the flat 1 ml adult dose). The SBP target for peds is >70 mmHg (not >90 as in adults).
    Protocol: Ref 11010 Epinephrine (0.01 mg/ml) Pediatric section; Ref 14150 ROSC
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    IO infusion pain: Lidocaine 2% 0.5 mg/kg slow IO push over 2 minutes; max 40 mg. This is administered via the IO itself before starting the infusion to anesthetize the intraosseous space. This applies to both adults and peds. Wait approximately 30-60 seconds for effect before flushing.
    Protocol: Ref 11010 Lidocaine 2% IO Pain section
    ✓ Correct Answer: C
    LALS (AEMT) scope for allergic reaction: Epi 0.3 mg auto-injector (BLS), Albuterol 2.5 mg neb (LALS/ALS), Epi 0.3 mg IM (1 mg/ml) if no Albuterol response (LALS/ALS), IV bolus 300 ml NS if poor perfusion. Diphenhydramine is ALS ONLY — not in LALS scope. Option C is the most accurate because it correctly excludes Diphenhydramine from LALS.
    Protocol: Ref 14010 Respiratory Emergencies Adult, LALS section
    ✓ Correct Answer: C
    ICEMA Ref 14090: Remove impaled object ONLY when: (1) it interferes with CPR, (2) it is impaled in the face/cheek/neck and compromising ventilations, OR (3) upon trauma base hospital physician order. All other impaled objects: immobilize and leave in place.
    Protocol: Ref 14090 Trauma Adult, Impaled Object section
    ✓ Correct Answer: C
    Atropine for unstable bradycardia: 1 mg IV/IO, repeat q5 min, maximum 3 mg (or 0.04 mg/kg). Note: for organophosphate poisoning, no maximum is stated — give until secretions dry. The 3 mg cap applies ONLY to the bradycardia indication.
    Protocol: Ref 11010 Atropine Adult Bradycardia section
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    CO poisoning: pulse oximetry is UNRELIABLE because hemoglobin bound to CO (COHb) reads as oxyhemoglobin on standard pulse ox. SpO₂ 98% is falsely reassuring. Per ICEMA Ref 13050: administer 100% O₂ via NRB mask regardless of apparent SpO₂ reading. ETCO₂ may also be abnormal. Treat the clinical presentation, not the false saturation number.
    Protocol: Ref 13050 Smoke Inhalation/CO Exposure; Ref 14060
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    ICEMA protocol: for seizures, max 3 doses Midazolam as a standing order, then "contact base hospital for additional orders and to discuss further treatment options." The BH physician CAN order additional doses beyond 3 — the standing order is exhausted but medical direction can continue treatment. The protocol explicitly says to contact BH, not to switch drugs.
    Protocol: Ref 11010 Midazolam Adult Seizure section
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    ICEMA Ref 14110: "Minors under the age of nine (9) base hospital order only" for behavioral emergencies requiring Midazolam. Children 9 and older follow the adult behavioral emergency standing order protocol. This is a hard age cutoff — under 9 = BH order required for behavioral emergencies.
    Protocol: Ref 14110 Behavioral Emergencies; Ref 11010 Midazolam Peds Behavioral
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    ICEMA Ref 14100 Special Considerations: "Shifting from one analgesic while treating a patient requires base hospital contact." This is a clear protocol requirement. Even though Ketamine is a standing order for pain management, switching FROM another analgesic requires BH authorization. Contact BH, then administer as ordered.
    Protocol: Ref 14100 Pain Management Special Considerations
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    ICEMA Ref 14090 and 14050: "Mechanical cardiopulmonary resuscitation (mCPR) devices are contraindicated for trauma patients." Remove the device and perform manual CPR. mCPR devices are only authorized for NON-TRAUMATIC cardiac arrest. Traumatic arrests have compressible causes (tension PTX, hemorrhage) that cannot be addressed by a mechanical device continuing compressions.
    Protocol: Ref 14090 Trauma Adult, BLS interventions; Ref 14050
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    ICEMA Ref 11020 Transcutaneous Cardiac Pacing: "Start at a rate of 60 and adjust output to the lowest setting to maintain capture." "Increase rate (not to exceed 100) to maintain adequate tissue perfusion." Start: 60 bpm. Maximum: 100 bpm. BH contact if rhythm persists or continued signs of inadequate tissue perfusion.
    Protocol: Ref 11020 Transcutaneous Cardiac Pacing section
    ✓ Correct Answer: A
    Epinephrine 1 mg/ml IM for bronchospasm/asthma/allergic reaction: 0.3 mg IM; may repeat ONCE after 15 minutes if symptoms do not improve. You gave one dose and 15 minutes have passed with partial improvement — you may administer a second 0.3 mg IM dose as your standing order. CPAP is also appropriate. After two Epi IM doses with inadequate response, contact BH for MgSO4 order.
    Protocol: Ref 11010 Epinephrine 1 mg/ml Adult section; Ref 14010
    ✓ Correct Answer: C
    High-energy mechanism (intrusion >12 inches) meets MOI criteria (Step 3). Pregnancy >20 weeks meets Age/Co-morbid criteria (Step 4). When mechanism exists without physiologic/anatomic criteria, AND special considerations exist (pregnancy), contact trauma base hospital for destination consultation. This is NOT an automatic trauma center transport.
    Protocol: Ref 9040 Trauma Triage Criteria, Steps 3 and 4
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    ICEMA Ref 11010: Patients 4–8 years old: may administer a total of 4 mg of Ondansetron (one 4 mg dose) PRIOR to base hospital contact. Patients ≥9 years: may administer 4 mg; may repeat ×2 at 10-min intervals; max 12 mg before BH contact. This 4-year-old falls in the 4–8 age group = max 4 mg before BH contact.
    Protocol: Ref 11010 Ondansetron section
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    ICEMA Ref 14210 explicitly states under Postpartum Hemorrhage BLS interventions: "Encourage immediate breast feeding." Breastfeeding stimulates endogenous oxytocin release from the posterior pituitary, which causes uterine contractions and helps control postpartum hemorrhage. This is a low-tech, effective intervention listed directly in protocol.
    Protocol: Ref 14210 Obstetrical Emergencies, Postpartum Hemorrhage BLS
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    ICEMA Ref 14230 and Ref 11010: Adult Push Dose Epi is titrated to maintain SBP >90 mm Hg. Peds Push Dose Epi: titrate SBP >70 mm Hg. The adult target of >90 is the permissive hypotension floor — do not over-target. Administer 1 ml IV q1–5 min and reassess BP each time.
    Protocol: Ref 11010 Epinephrine 0.01 mg/ml adult section; Ref 14230
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    ICEMA Ref 11020 Vagal Maneuvers: "Relative contraindications for patients with hypertension, suspected STEMI, or suspected head/brain injury." These are relative (not absolute) contraindications. Use clinical judgment but avoid vagal maneuvers in these situations as they can worsen the underlying condition.
    Protocol: Ref 11020 Vagal Maneuvers section
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    ICEMA Pain Management for pediatric patients: Fentanyl 0.5 mcg/kg slow IV/IO over 1 min (35 kg = 17.5 mcg) and Acetaminophen 15 mg/kg IV (35 kg = 525 mg, max 1 gm) are both appropriate. Ketamine is NOT indicated for pediatric patients in ICEMA pain protocol — adult only (≥15 years). Morphine is not in ICEMA protocol.
    Protocol: Ref 14100 Pain Management; Ref 11010 Fentanyl/Acetaminophen pediatric
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    Blunt trauma — unstable (SBP <90): 250 ml NS bolus IV/IO; may repeat one time; maximum 500 ml total. Hemothorax from blunt chest trauma = blunt trauma protocol. Permissive hypotension limits fluid to prevent clot disruption. The 500 ml cap is strict for blunt trauma.
    Protocol: Ref 14090 Trauma Adult, Blunt Trauma Unstable section
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    Adult Lidocaine for cardiac arrest (VF/pulseless VT): initial dose 1.5 mg/kg IV/IO; for refractory VF/VT, additional 0.75 mg/kg IV/IO (repeat once in 5–10 min); maximum total dose 3 mg/kg. Note: the pediatric dose is 1.0 mg/kg initial (lower than adult). The adult initial dose of 1.5 mg/kg is a common test distinction.
    Protocol: Ref 11010 Lidocaine Adult section
    ✓ Correct Answer: B
    ICEMA Ref 9030: ROSC of unknown or suspected cardiac etiology → transport to closest STEMI Receiving Center regardless of 12-lead ECG findings, IF the closest STEMI Receiving Center is NOT greater than 30 minutes away. At 22 minutes, the STEMI center is within the 30-min window. The ECG showing no STEMI does not change this protocol. ETCO₂ of 28 is somewhat low but does not affect destination — optimize ventilation en route.
    Protocol: Ref 9030 Destination STEMI section; Ref 14050 Stable ROSC section

    Ball Knowledge Medics — ICEMA Study Guide

    Based on ICEMA Policy & Protocol Manual effective 11/01/25, updated 01/01/26 · For educational use only · Always follow current agency protocols